what are the expected symptoms in a patient with compartment syndrome

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2

1. What are the expected symptoms in a patient with compartment syndrome?

A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
B. Localized swelling and redness
C. Fever and swelling
D. Weakness and fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These symptoms are classic signs of compartment syndrome, which is a serious condition characterized by reduced circulation in a closed muscle compartment. The pain is typically severe and disproportionate to the injury, and if left untreated, it can lead to tissue damage and loss of function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not represent the hallmark symptoms of compartment syndrome. Localized swelling and redness may be present but are not specific to this condition. Fever and swelling are more indicative of inflammation or infection, while weakness and fatigue are nonspecific and do not typically occur in isolation in compartment syndrome.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with rheumatoid arthritis who has been taking prednisone. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?

A. Weight loss
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Hypertension
D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Hypertension.' Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can lead to hypertension as an adverse effect. Prednisone can cause sodium retention and potassium loss, leading to increased blood pressure. Weight loss (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of prednisone; in fact, weight gain is more common. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is not typically associated with prednisone use; instead, hyperglycemia is a common concern. Hyperkalemia (choice D) is also unlikely with prednisone use; instead, hypokalemia is a potential electrolyte imbalance.

3. Which lab value is a priority for a patient with HIV?

A. CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3
B. Albumin levels below 3.5 g/dL
C. Potassium levels below 3.5 mEq/L
D. White blood cell count below 5000/mm3

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count of less than 180 cells/mm3 is a priority for a patient with HIV because it indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk for opportunistic infections. Monitoring CD4 levels helps in assessing the immune status and guiding treatment decisions in patients with HIV. Albumin levels (choice B) are important for assessing nutritional status but are not a direct indicator of immune function in HIV patients. Potassium levels (choice C) and white blood cell count (choice D) are also important, but the CD4 T-cell count is specifically crucial for evaluating the immune function in individuals with HIV.

4. What is the primary nursing action for a patient experiencing continuous bubbling in the chest tube water seal chamber?

A. Tighten the connections of the chest tube system
B. Clamp the chest tube
C. Continue monitoring the chest tube
D. Replace the chest tube system

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. Continuous bubbling in the chest tube water seal chamber indicates an air leak. By tightening the connections of the chest tube system, the nurse can often resolve the issue by ensuring there are no loose connections allowing air to enter. Clamping the chest tube or replacing the chest tube system are not appropriate actions in this situation. Clamping the tube can cause a dangerous buildup of pressure, while replacing the system should only be considered if tightening the connections does not resolve the air leak.

5. What is an escharotomy and when is it performed?

A. A surgical incision to release pressure in burn injuries
B. A procedure to remove dead tissue from wounds
C. An incision to improve circulation in tight skin after burns
D. A procedure to remove excess fluid from the chest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An escharotomy is a surgical incision made to release pressure in a part of the body that has a deep burn and excessive swelling. This procedure is crucial in preventing further damage due to restricted blood flow and compromised circulation. Choice B is incorrect because it describes debridement, which is the removal of dead tissue from wounds. Choice C is incorrect as it does not specifically address the purpose of relieving pressure in burn injuries. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a procedure more related to thoracentesis, which is the removal of excess fluid from the chest, typically the pleural space.