ATI RN
WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A patient is being treated with hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for menopausal symptoms. What are the risks associated with long-term HRT that the nurse should discuss with the patient?
- A. HRT may increase the risk of cardiovascular events and breast cancer.
- B. HRT may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
- C. HRT may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.
- D. HRT may improve mood and energy levels.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Long-term HRT is associated with increased risks of cardiovascular events and breast cancer. These risks should be discussed with the patient to ensure they are informed about the potential adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect because HRT does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it may increase the risk of certain conditions like cardiovascular events. Choice C is incorrect as HRT is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, not a decreased risk. Choice D is incorrect because while HRT may have positive effects like improving symptoms of menopause, it is not primarily indicated for improving mood and energy levels.
2. Why is testosterone therapy prescribed for a 70-year-old man being treated for osteoporosis?
- A. To increase bone density
- B. To reduce the risk of fractures
- C. To enhance sexual performance
- D. To restore testosterone levels
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The primary reason for prescribing testosterone therapy for osteoporosis in men is to restore testosterone levels, not specifically to increase bone density. Testosterone plays a crucial role in maintaining bone density, so by restoring testosterone levels, it indirectly helps in maintaining bone density. Choices A and B are partially correct but do not address the primary reason for testosterone therapy in this context. Choice C is incorrect as the main focus of testosterone therapy in osteoporosis treatment is not related to enhancing sexual performance.
3. When a Tae Kwon Do (TKD) master applies downward pressure just above the elbow joint on an attacker who immediately collapses to the ground, which reflex is applicable to this example?
- A. Golgi tendon reflex
- B. Myotatic reflex
- C. Withdrawal reflex
- D. Crossed-extensor reflex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The Golgi tendon reflex is the correct answer. This reflex protects the muscle and tendons from excessive force by causing the muscle to relax. In this scenario, the downward pressure applied just above the elbow joint triggers the Golgi tendon reflex, resulting in the attacker's collapse. The other options are incorrect: - The myotatic reflex (also known as the stretch reflex) is responsible for contracting a muscle in response to its stretch, not relaxing it. - The withdrawal reflex is a spinal reflex that moves a body part away from a painful stimulus, not directly related to the scenario described. - The crossed-extensor reflex is a reflex that occurs on the opposite side of the body in response to a withdrawal reflex, which is not the case in this situation.
4. A client presents to the emergency department with lower right quadrant abdominal pain, fever, nausea, and occasional diarrhea. After palpating the abdomen, the client displays tenderness. What would the nurse anticipate the client to be experiencing?
- A. Pseudomembranous colitis
- B. Peptic ulcer disease
- C. Appendicitis
- D. Esophageal cancer
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Appendicitis. The symptoms described - lower right quadrant abdominal pain, fever, nausea, diarrhea, and tenderness upon palpation - are classic signs of appendicitis. Appendicitis is an inflammatory condition of the appendix that often presents with these symptoms and requires immediate medical attention. Choice A, Pseudomembranous colitis, typically presents with watery diarrhea and is associated with antibiotic use. Choice B, Peptic ulcer disease, commonly presents with epigastric pain related to meals and can be accompanied by nausea or vomiting, but it does not typically cause right lower quadrant pain. Choice D, Esophageal cancer, usually presents with symptoms related to swallowing difficulties, weight loss, and sometimes chest pain, but it is not associated with the symptoms described in the scenario.
5. During a late-night study session, a pathophysiology student reaches out to turn the page of her textbook. Which component of her nervous system contains the highest level of control of her arm and hand action?
- A. Cerebral cortex
- B. Basal ganglia
- C. Brainstem
- D. Cerebellum
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cerebral cortex. The cerebral cortex, particularly the motor cortex, is responsible for the voluntary control of precise movements such as turning a page. The cerebral cortex plays a crucial role in the highest level of control of motor functions, including those of the arm and hand. Choice B, Basal ganglia, is more involved in motor planning and coordination, while choice C, Brainstem, is responsible for basic life functions and reflexes. Choice D, Cerebellum, is primarily involved in coordination, precision, and accurate timing of movements, rather than the highest level of control for specific actions like page-turning.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access