Nursing Elites

1. A patient is being treated with hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for menopausal symptoms. What are the risks associated with long-term HRT that the nurse should discuss with the patient?

• A. HRT may increase the risk of cardiovascular events and breast cancer.
• B. HRT may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
• C. HRT may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.
• D. HRT may improve mood and energy levels.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Long-term HRT is associated with increased risks of cardiovascular events and breast cancer. These risks should be discussed with the patient to ensure they are informed about the potential adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect because HRT does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it may increase the risk of certain conditions like cardiovascular events. Choice C is incorrect as HRT is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, not a decreased risk. Choice D is incorrect because while HRT may have positive effects like improving symptoms of menopause, it is not primarily indicated for improving mood and energy levels.

2. Anemia of chronic inflammation is generally classified as:

• A. hypochromic and microcytic.
• B. hypochromic and macrocytic.
• C. normochromic and microcytic.
• D. normochromic and normocytic.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anemia of chronic inflammation is characterized by normochromic and normocytic red blood cells. In chronic inflammation, the body typically produces enough red blood cells, but they are often smaller and paler than normal (normocytic and normochromic). Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because hypochromic and microcytic, hypochromic and macrocytic, and normochromic and microcytic anemias are not typically associated with chronic inflammation.

3. A patient with endometriosis is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera). What should the nurse include in the patient education?

• A. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
• B. Medroxyprogesterone can be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
• C. Medroxyprogesterone should be discontinued if side effects occur.
• D. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken once a week to maintain effectiveness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When educating a patient with endometriosis who is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera), the nurse should emphasize the importance of taking the medication at the same time each day. This helps maintain consistent hormone levels and ensures the effectiveness of the treatment. Option A is correct. Option B is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone should be taken consistently, regardless of food intake. Option C is incorrect because discontinuing the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can be harmful. Option D is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone is typically taken daily, not weekly, for the treatment of endometriosis.

4. What best describes sepsis?

• A. An overwhelming allergic reaction
• B. Severe inflammatory response to a pathogen's endotoxins
• C. Unknown causes resulting in hypertension
• D. Poor nursing and health care provider interventions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sepsis is a severe inflammatory response to a pathogen's endotoxins, leading to widespread infection and organ dysfunction. Choice A is incorrect as sepsis is not primarily an allergic reaction. Choice C is incorrect as sepsis is not characterized by unknown causes resulting in hypertension. Choice D is incorrect as sepsis is a medical condition and not solely caused by poor nursing or healthcare provider interventions.

5. A nurse practitioner is seeing a client in the clinic with a suspected diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. What should the nurse anticipate as the priority action?

• A. Administer the first dose of antibiotics immediately after blood cultures are drawn.
• B. Start an IV line and administer corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.
• C. Isolate the client to prevent the spread of infection.
• D. Perform a lumbar puncture to confirm the diagnosis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the first dose of antibiotics immediately after blood cultures are drawn for suspected bacterial meningitis. This is crucial to initiate treatment promptly and improve patient outcomes. Starting an IV line and administering corticosteroids (Choice B) may be part of the treatment plan but administering antibiotics is the priority. Isolating the client (Choice C) is important to prevent the spread of infection but not the priority over initiating antibiotic therapy. Performing a lumbar puncture (Choice D) may confirm the diagnosis, but treatment should not be delayed for this step in suspected cases of bacterial meningitis.

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