ATI RN
Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. When starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse include in the education regarding the timing of the medication?
- A. Oral contraceptives should be taken at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and prevent pregnancy.
- B. Oral contraceptives can be taken at any time of day, as long as the schedule is consistent.
- C. Oral contraceptives should be taken in the morning to avoid nighttime side effects.
- D. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately upon starting, regardless of timing.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When educating a patient starting on oral contraceptives, it is essential to stress the importance of taking the medication at the same time each day. This ensures stable hormone levels, improving the effectiveness of the contraceptives in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because consistency in timing is crucial for maintaining hormone levels. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take oral contraceptives in the morning to avoid side effects. Choice D is incorrect as oral contraceptives may take some time to become fully effective, and consistent timing is important for their efficacy.
2. Which of the following types of vitamin or mineral deficiency can cause megaloblastic anemia and is associated with lower extremity paresthesias?
- A. Vitamin B12
- B. Folate
- C. Iron
- D. Vitamin K
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Vitamin B12. Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to megaloblastic anemia, a condition characterized by the production of abnormally large and immature red blood cells. Lower extremity paresthesias, such as tingling or numbness, are common neurological symptoms associated with vitamin B12 deficiency. Folate deficiency can also cause megaloblastic anemia but is not typically linked to lower extremity paresthesias. Iron deficiency leads to microcytic anemia, not megaloblastic anemia. Vitamin K deficiency is associated with bleeding tendencies, not megaloblastic anemia or paresthesias.
3. What is the purpose of the inflammatory response?
- A. Prevents blood from entering the injured tissue
- B. Elevates body temperature to prevent spread of infection
- C. Prevents formation of abscess
- D. Minimizes injury and promotes healing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The inflammatory response is a protective mechanism triggered by tissue damage or infection. It aims to minimize injury by removing harmful stimuli and initiating the healing process. Choice A is incorrect because blood flow to the injured tissue is actually increased to deliver immune cells and nutrients. Choice B is incorrect because while fever is a response to infection, it is not the primary purpose of the inflammatory response. Choice C is incorrect because abscess formation can occur as part of the inflammatory response in an attempt to contain an infection.
4. The signs of thyroid crisis resulting from Graves' disease include:
- A. constipation with gastric distension.
- B. bradycardia and bradypnea.
- C. hyperthermia and tachycardia.
- D. constipation and lethargy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Thyroid crisis in Graves' disease typically presents with hyperthermia (high body temperature) and tachycardia (rapid heart rate). These symptoms are a result of excessive thyroid hormone production and can lead to life-threatening complications if not promptly addressed. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because constipation with gastric distension, bradycardia and bradypnea, and constipation and lethargy are not typical signs of a thyroid crisis in Graves' disease.
5. A hospital client is at a high risk of developing bacterial endocarditis. Which of the following prophylactic measures is likely to be most effective?
- A. Avoiding exposure to individuals known to carry the streptococcus bacterium
- B. Daily administration of low-dose corticosteroids
- C. Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy before any invasive procedure
- D. Routine vaccinations against meningococcal and pneumococcal infections
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy before any invasive procedure is the most effective measure in preventing bacterial endocarditis in at-risk individuals. This measure helps to reduce the risk of bacterial infection during invasive procedures, which can lead to endocarditis. Choice A is incorrect as avoiding exposure to individuals with streptococcus does not address the primary preventive measure needed. Choice B is incorrect as corticosteroids do not prevent bacterial endocarditis, and daily administration is not the recommended prophylactic measure. Choice D is incorrect as routine vaccinations against meningococcal and pneumococcal infections are important for other conditions but not specifically for preventing bacterial endocarditis.
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