a patient is being treated for a severe fungal infection with amphotericin b what is the expected length of treatment for this patient
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology

1. A patient is being treated for a severe fungal infection with amphotericin B. What is the expected length of treatment for this patient?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: '4 to 12 weeks.' Amphotericin B treatment duration for severe fungal infections typically ranges from 4 to 12 weeks. This extended period is necessary to ensure complete eradication of the fungal infection and prevent relapse. Choices A, B, and D provide durations that are either too short or too long for treating severe fungal infections effectively, making them incorrect.

2. Which of the following is a characteristic of osteosarcoma?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Osteosarcoma is an aggressive bone tumor that most commonly arises in the bone marrow of long bones, such as the femur or tibia. Choice A is incorrect as osteosarcoma is not a slow-growing tumor but rather a fast-growing one. Choice B is incorrect as osteosarcoma is not typically solitary but can involve multiple lesions. Choice D is incorrect as osteosarcoma primarily affects the medullary (marrow) cavity of bones, rather than infiltrating the trabeculae in spongy bone and surrounding tissue.

3. Which of the following describes the condition in the body of clients experiencing hypovolemia?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insufficient circulating blood volume. Hypovolemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the volume of blood plasma. This reduction in circulating blood volume can lead to inadequate perfusion of tissues and organs, potentially resulting in shock if left untreated. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased urine retention, bounding peripheral pulses, and crackles auscultated in the lungs are not typical manifestations of hypovolemia.

4. In which patients would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is the 55-year-old man with new onset headaches that worsen at night and reported mood swings according to his family. These symptoms, especially when combined with nighttime worsening and mood changes, could indicate a serious underlying disorder such as a brain tumor or increased intracranial pressure. Choice B is incorrect as the unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea is suggestive of migraine headaches, which are usually not associated with serious underlying disorders. Choice C describes symptoms that are more indicative of tension-type headaches rather than a serious underlying disorder. Choice D presents symptoms that are more likely related to hormonal changes and migraines rather than a serious underlying disorder.

5. A 50-year-old woman has had a relapse of her multiple sclerosis (MS) after several years of being symptom-free. Which of the following factors is most likely to have contributed to her relapse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Physical overexertion. In individuals with multiple sclerosis (MS), physical overexertion can exacerbate symptoms and contribute to a relapse. It is important for individuals with MS to balance physical activity to avoid triggering symptom reoccurrence. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to have directly contributed to the relapse. Emotional stress and dietary indiscretion may play a role in exacerbating symptoms in some individuals, but physical overexertion is more commonly associated with MS relapses. Adequate rest and relaxation are important for overall well-being but are not typically linked to MS relapses.

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