a patient is being treated for a severe fungal infection with amphotericin b what is the expected length of treatment for this patient
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ATI Pathophysiology

1. A patient is being treated for a severe fungal infection with amphotericin B. What is the expected length of treatment for this patient?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: '4 to 12 weeks.' Amphotericin B treatment duration for severe fungal infections typically ranges from 4 to 12 weeks. This extended period is necessary to ensure complete eradication of the fungal infection and prevent relapse. Choices A, B, and D provide durations that are either too short or too long for treating severe fungal infections effectively, making them incorrect.

2. What typically causes contact dermatitis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Contact dermatitis is typically caused by contact with a skin allergen that triggers an allergic reaction. Choice A, fungal infection, is incorrect as contact dermatitis is not caused by fungi. Choice B, long-term disorder from gout, is also incorrect as gout is not typically associated with contact dermatitis. Choice D, Staphylococcal infection, is incorrect as contact dermatitis is primarily an allergic reaction rather than a bacterial infection.

3. A nursing student is learning about the effects of bactericidal agents. How does rifampin (Rifadin) achieve a therapeutic action against both intracellular and extracellular tuberculosis organisms?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rifampin (Rifadin) achieves a therapeutic action against both intracellular and extracellular tuberculosis organisms by inhibiting the synthesis of RNA. This action interferes with bacterial RNA synthesis, leading to the suppression of protein synthesis in the bacteria, ultimately causing their death. Option A is incorrect because rifampin is primarily metabolized in the liver, but this is not how it exerts its bactericidal effects. Option B is incorrect as rifampin does not bind to acetylcholine. Option D is also incorrect as rifampin does not cause phagocytosis.

4. A client with heart failure is experiencing pulmonary edema. Which intervention should be prioritized?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client experiencing pulmonary edema due to heart failure, the priority intervention is to administer oxygen therapy to improve oxygenation. This helps in increasing the oxygen levels in the blood, thereby improving tissue perfusion and reducing the workload on the heart. Positioning the client in high-Fowler's position can also aid in improving oxygenation, but administering oxygen therapy directly addresses the immediate need for increased oxygen levels. Administering diuretics to reduce fluid overload and restricting fluid intake are important interventions in heart failure management, but in the acute situation of pulmonary edema, oxygen therapy takes precedence to ensure adequate oxygen supply to vital organs.

5. A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What critical contraindication should the nurse review with the patient?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, which can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choice B (Use of antihypertensive medications) is incorrect because antihypertensive medications are not a critical contraindication for sildenafil use. Choice C (History of hypertension) is incorrect as it is not a contraindication for sildenafil; in fact, sildenafil is sometimes used in patients with hypertension. Choice D (History of peptic ulcer disease) is also incorrect as it is not a critical contraindication for sildenafil use.

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