Nursing Elites

1. A patient in the emergency department reports taking sildenafil (Viagra) and nitroglycerin 1 hr before sexual activity. Which finding should the nurse immediately report to the physician?

• A. WBC of 3200 cells/mm³
• B. RR of 26 breaths/min
• C. Temp of 38°C
• D. BP of 70/50

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: BP of 70/50. When sildenafil (Viagra) is taken with nitroglycerin, it can cause severe hypotension that is unresponsive to treatment. The combination of these medications can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. It is crucial to immediately report hypotension in this scenario as it poses a significant risk to the patient's life. It is recommended to allow at least 24 hours to elapse between the last dose of sildenafil and nitroglycerin to prevent such adverse effects. The other vital signs and lab values may be abnormal but do not have the immediate life-threatening implications that severe hypotension does in this context.

2. Why is it important to share information with the family about why you are asking certain things as you evaluate the child?

• A. It helps them to understand the role of occupational therapy
• B. It establishes your goals with the family up front
• C. It communicates your level of expertise to the family
• D. It allows them to understand your point of view

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Sharing information with the family about the reasons for your questions is crucial as it helps them comprehend the purpose and role of occupational therapy in the evaluation process. This transparency fosters trust, collaboration, and empowers families to actively engage in the therapy journey. Choice B is incorrect because while it is essential to establish goals with the family, the focus here is on sharing information about the evaluation process. Choice C is incorrect as the main purpose is not to showcase expertise but rather to involve the family in understanding the assessment. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal is not for the family to understand your point of view, but rather the purpose of the evaluation within the occupational therapy context.

3. A school-age child is 4 hours postoperative following perforated appendicitis repair. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Maintain the child on a clear liquid diet for 48 hours.
• B. Administer antibiotics for 7 days.
• C. Apply warm compresses to the surgical site every 4 hours.
• D. Keep the child on NPO status for 24 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering antibiotics for 7 days is essential postoperatively to prevent infections and complications in a child who underwent perforated appendicitis repair. This helps in reducing the risk of secondary infections and promoting healing. Clear liquid diets, warm compresses, and prolonged fasting are not the primary interventions indicated in this scenario.

4. What is the most appropriate nursing consideration for a patient who is prescribed verapamil and digoxin?

• A. Restrict intake of oral fluids and high-fiber foods
• B. Take an apical pulse for 30 seconds before administration
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of nausea, vomiting, and visual changes
• D. Hold the medications if the heart rate is greater than 110 bpm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed verapamil and digoxin, it is crucial to monitor for signs of digoxin toxicity due to the potential interaction between these medications. Verapamil can elevate digoxin blood serum levels, increasing the risk of toxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include nausea, vomiting, and visual changes. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing consideration is to notify the healthcare provider of these symptoms. Restricting intake of oral fluids and high-fiber foods is not a specific consideration related to this medication combination. Before administering digoxin, it is essential to take an apical pulse for a full minute, not just 30 seconds, to ensure accuracy. Additionally, holding the medications if the heart rate exceeds 110 bpm is not a typical response to the combination of verapamil and digoxin, which can cause bradycardia rather than tachycardia.

5. The nurse plans to closely monitor for which clinical manifestation after administering furosemide (Lasix)?

• A. Decrease pulse
• B. Decrease temperature
• C. Decrease BP
• D. Decrease respiratory rate.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: High-ceiling diuretics, such as furosemide, are the most effective diuretic agents. They produce more loss of fluid and electrolytes than any others. A sudden loss of fluid can result in decreased BP. When BP drops, the pulse will probably increase rather than decrease.

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