Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider at an urgent care clinic is assessing an adolescent client who has an upper respiratory tract infection. Which of the following findings should the provider recognize as a manifestation of pertussis?

• A. Inflamed throat with exudate
• B. Purulent eye drainage
• C. Dry, hacking cough
• D. Koplik spots on buccal mucosa

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Dry, hacking cough.' A dry, hacking cough is a classic manifestation of pertussis. Pertussis typically presents with symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection, starting with a persistent, severe, and uncontrollable cough that can worsen at night. This cough is often followed by a high-pitched 'whoop' sound as the patient tries to catch their breath, hence the term 'whooping cough.' In contrast, options A, B, and D are not typically associated with pertussis. Inflamed throat with exudate may suggest a bacterial throat infection like streptococcal pharyngitis, purulent eye drainage is more indicative of a bacterial conjunctivitis, and Koplik spots on the buccal mucosa are specific to measles. Therefore, recognizing the dry, hacking cough as a manifestation of pertussis is crucial for early identification and appropriate management of the disease.

2. Which level nursery classifications are housed in institutions that can provide on-site surgical repair of serious congenital or acquired malformations?

• A. Level III
• B. Level I
• C. Level IV
• D. Level II

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Level IV. Level IV nurseries are equipped to provide the highest level of care, including complex surgical interventions for serious congenital or acquired malformations. These nurseries have the necessary resources and expertise to manage critical cases effectively. Choice A: Level III nurseries provide advanced care for moderately ill newborns but may not have the capacity for on-site surgical repair of serious malformations. Choice B: Level I nurseries offer basic care for healthy newborns and those with minor issues, lacking the resources for surgical interventions. Choice D: Level II nurseries can manage moderately ill newborns but may not have the capability for complex surgical interventions like Level IV nurseries.

3. A patient is 1 hour postoperative following an open reduction internal fixation of the left tibia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Assess neurovascular status of the extremities every 4 hours
• B. Monitor the patient's pain level every 8 hours
• C. Assist the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours
• D. Keep the patient's left leg elevated on two pillows

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take 1 hour postoperative following an open reduction internal fixation of the left tibia is to assess neurovascular status of the extremities every 4 hours. This frequent assessment is crucial to monitor for any signs of complications such as impaired circulation or nerve damage. Monitoring every 4 hours allows for early detection of any issues, enabling timely intervention and prevention of potential complications. Monitoring the patient's pain level every 8 hours (choice B) is not as immediate or essential for postoperative care. Assisting the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours (choice C) may not be necessary if the patient is not ambulatory yet. Keeping the patient's left leg elevated on two pillows (choice D) can be beneficial but is not the priority in the immediate postoperative period compared to assessing neurovascular status.

4. The healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to the parent of a school-age child who has celiac disease. The healthcare provider should recommend that the parent offer which of the following foods to the child?

• A. Wheat bread
• B. Vanilla malt
• C. Barley soup
• D. Rice pudding

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Celiac disease requires a lifelong gluten-free diet. Foods containing gluten such as wheat, barley, and rye should be avoided. Rice pudding is a safe option as it does not contain gluten, making it a suitable choice for a child with celiac disease.

5. Which statement regarding the human papillomavirus vaccine (Gardasil) is true?

• A. Gardasil is administered in a two-dose series.
• B. Gardasil provides protection against chlamydia.
• C. Gardasil is recommended for males and females.
• D. Gardasil becomes effective after the first dose.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Gardasil is recommended for both males and females to protect against HPV and related conditions such as genital warts and certain cancers. It is essential for both genders to receive the vaccine to prevent the spread of HPV and its associated health risks.

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