ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2
1. In a male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) prescribed tamsulosin (Flomax), what is the expected therapeutic effect of this medication?
- A. Decreased urinary frequency and urgency
- B. Increased urinary output
- C. Decreased blood pressure
- D. Increased hair growth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased urinary frequency and urgency. Tamsulosin is prescribed for patients with BPH to relax the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck. This relaxation helps in relieving the symptoms of BPH, such as decreased urinary flow, frequent urination, and urgency. Choice B is incorrect because tamsulosin does not increase urinary output but rather improves the flow of urine by relaxing the muscles. Choice C is incorrect as tamsulosin is not primarily used for reducing blood pressure. Choice D is also incorrect as tamsulosin does not promote increased hair growth.
2. A nurse recalls an example of an immune-complex-mediated disease is:
- A. Bronchial asthma
- B. Contact dermatitis
- C. Serum sickness
- D. Rheumatoid arthritis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum sickness. Serum sickness is characterized by the formation of immune complexes in response to certain medications or proteins. These immune complexes can deposit in tissues, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. Bronchial asthma (Choice A) is a chronic inflammatory condition of the airways not primarily mediated by immune complexes. Contact dermatitis (Choice B) is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction mediated by T cells, not immune complexes. Rheumatoid arthritis (Choice D) is an autoimmune disease where antibodies target self-antigens, but it is not primarily mediated by immune complexes.
3. What is the common denominator of all forms of heart failure?
- A. Pulmonary edema
- B. Jugular venous distention
- C. Peripheral edema
- D. Reduced cardiac output
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduced cardiac output. All forms of heart failure share the common denominator of reduced cardiac output, which leads to inadequate tissue perfusion. Pulmonary edema (choice A) is a consequence of heart failure but not the common denominator. Jugular venous distention (choice B) and peripheral edema (choice C) are signs of heart failure but do not represent the common denominator shared by all forms.
4. What potential risk should the nurse identify as being associated with infliximab (Remicade) in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?
- A. Risk for infection
- B. Risk for decreased level of consciousness
- C. Risk for nephrotoxicity
- D. Risk for hepatotoxicity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for infection. Infliximab (Remicade) is a medication used to treat autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis. One of the main risks associated with infliximab is an increased susceptibility to infections due to its immunosuppressive effects. This drug works by targeting specific proteins in the body's immune system, which can weaken the body's ability to fight off infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because infliximab is not typically associated with decreased level of consciousness, nephrotoxicity, or hepatotoxicity. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients on infliximab for signs of infection and educate them on the importance of infection prevention strategies.
5. Which of the following best describes Cushing’s syndrome?
- A. Hypersecretion of growth hormone
- B. Excessive production of cortisol by the adrenal glands
- C. Insufficient production of insulin
- D. Increased levels of ACTH
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cushing’s syndrome is characterized by the excessive production of cortisol by the adrenal glands, not growth hormone (Choice A), insulin (Choice C), or ACTH (Choice D). The increased cortisol levels lead to a variety of symptoms associated with Cushing’s syndrome.
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