Nursing Elites

1. A patient arrives at her follow-up appointment 1 month post-hysterectomy and complains to the nurse that her scars do not seem to be healing properly. Upon inspection, the nurse notices that the scars are raised but still within the boundaries of the original incisions. The nurse tells the patient this kind of dysfunctional wound healing is called:

• A. Hypertrophic scarring
• B. Dehiscence
• C. Contracture
• D. A keloid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypertrophic scarring occurs when a scar is raised but remains within the boundaries of the original wound, unlike keloids, which extend beyond the wound edges. Dehiscence refers to the separation of wound edges, while contracture involves the tightening or constriction of a scar, leading to limited mobility.

2. A patient taking an oral contraceptive missed one pill. What should the nurse teach the patient to do?

• A. Take two pills as soon as you remember, then continue the regular schedule.
• B. Take one pill as soon as you remember, then continue the regular schedule.
• C. Skip the missed pill and continue the regular schedule.
• D. Take two pills immediately, then continue the regular schedule.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient taking an oral contraceptive misses one pill, the correct action is to take two pills as soon as they remember and then continue the regular schedule. Option A is the correct answer because doubling up the dose helps maintain the effectiveness of the contraceptive. Option B is incorrect because taking only one pill after missing one may decrease contraceptive effectiveness. Option C is wrong as skipping the missed pill can also reduce effectiveness. Option D is inaccurate because taking two pills immediately is not necessary; the patient should take the missed pill as soon as remembered and then resume the regular dosing schedule.

3. A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What critical contraindication should the nurse review with the patient?

• A. Use of nitrates
• B. Use of antihypertensive medications
• C. History of hypertension
• D. History of peptic ulcer disease

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, which can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choice B (Use of antihypertensive medications) is incorrect because antihypertensive medications are not a critical contraindication for sildenafil use. Choice C (History of hypertension) is incorrect as it is not a contraindication for sildenafil; in fact, sildenafil is sometimes used in patients with hypertension. Choice D (History of peptic ulcer disease) is also incorrect as it is not a critical contraindication for sildenafil use.

4. An infant is being administered an immunization. Which of the following provides an accurate description of an immunization?

• A. It should be administered to a pregnant woman prior to the infant's birth.
• B. It is the administration of an antigen to stimulate an antibody response.
• C. It produces many adverse reactions, particularly autism, in the infant.
• D. It protects the infant from exposure to infectious antibodies.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Immunization involves administering an antigen, such as a weakened or killed microorganism, to stimulate the immune system to produce an antibody response. This process helps the body recognize and remember specific pathogens, providing immunity against future infections. Choice A is incorrect because immunizations are administered to the infant directly, not to the pregnant woman before birth. Choice C is incorrect as there is no scientific evidence linking immunizations to autism. Choice D is incorrect as immunizations protect against infectious agents, not antibodies.

5. In a 41-year-old male patient with a complex medical history diagnosed with secondary hypogonadism, which of the following health problems is the most likely etiology of his diagnosis?

• A. Type 1 diabetes
• B. Mumps
• C. An inflammatory process in the testicles
• D. Testicular trauma

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: An inflammatory process in the testicles. Secondary hypogonadism in males can be caused by various factors, including an inflammatory process in the testicles. Mumps (choice B) can lead to orchitis but is less common in adults. Type 1 diabetes (choice A) is not a common cause of secondary hypogonadism. Testicular trauma (choice D) can cause primary hypogonadism but is less likely to cause secondary hypogonadism.

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