Nursing Elites

1. A patient with a history of venous thromboembolism is prescribed hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What should the nurse discuss with the patient regarding the risks of HRT?

• A. HRT is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, so the patient should be aware of the signs and symptoms of blood clots.
• B. HRT can decrease the risk of osteoporosis, but the patient should also be aware of the increased risk of venous thromboembolism.
• C. HRT may increase the risk of breast cancer, so the patient should undergo regular breast exams.
• D. HRT can improve mood and energy levels, but it also carries a risk of cardiovascular events.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is indeed associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Therefore, patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots and advised to seek immediate medical attention if they occur. Choice B is incorrect because although HRT may decrease the risk of osteoporosis, the focus of concern in this case is the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Choice C is incorrect as it mentions the risk of breast cancer, which is not the primary concern when discussing HRT with a patient with a history of venous thromboembolism. Choice D is also incorrect as it mentions cardiovascular events, which are not the main focus of risk associated with HRT in this scenario.

2. What condition can be caused by an excessive amount of growth hormone released by the pituitary gland in childhood?

• A. Acromegaly
• B. Gigantism
• C. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone
• D. Dwarfism

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Gigantism is the correct answer. It is a condition caused by excessive growth hormone release before the epiphyseal plates close, leading to abnormal growth. Acromegaly (choice A) is caused by excess growth hormone after the epiphyseal plates close, resulting in enlargement of bones and tissues. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (choice C) is characterized by the excessive release of antidiuretic hormone, leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. Dwarfism (choice D) is a condition characterized by significantly below-average height.

3. In which patients would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?

• A. A 55-year-old man with new onset of headaches that are worse at night and reported mood swings according to his family
• B. A 30-year-old woman with a unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea
• C. A 60-year-old man with his head feeling full and throbbing and muscle aching around his neck and shoulders
• D. A 40-year-old woman who experiences food cravings, gets irritable, and then develops a pulsatile-like headache on the right side of her head

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is the 55-year-old man with new onset headaches that worsen at night and reported mood swings according to his family. These symptoms, especially when combined with nighttime worsening and mood changes, could indicate a serious underlying disorder such as a brain tumor or increased intracranial pressure. Choice B is incorrect as the unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea is suggestive of migraine headaches, which are usually not associated with serious underlying disorders. Choice C describes symptoms that are more indicative of tension-type headaches rather than a serious underlying disorder. Choice D presents symptoms that are more likely related to hormonal changes and migraines rather than a serious underlying disorder.

4. What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for the client's son based on the information provided?

• A. Risk for other-directed violence
• B. Disturbed sleep pattern
• C. Caregiver role strain
• D. Social isolation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Caregiver role strain.' In the scenario presented, the son expresses that his father's constant confusion, incontinence, and tendency to wander are intolerable. These challenges indicate that the son is experiencing strain in his role as a caregiver. 'Risk for other-directed violence' is not appropriate because there is no indication of violent behavior. 'Disturbed sleep pattern' is not the most relevant nursing diagnosis given the information provided. 'Social isolation' is not the most appropriate choice as the son's concerns are related to the challenges of caregiving, not isolation.

5. A patient is prescribed tadalafil (Cialis) for erectile dysfunction. What critical contraindication should the nurse discuss with the patient?

• A. Use of nitrates
• B. Use of antihypertensive medications
• C. History of hypertension
• D. History of peptic ulcer disease

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use of nitrates. Tadalafil (Cialis) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates potentiate the hypotensive effects of tadalafil, leading to a potentially life-threatening drop in blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because antihypertensive medications, history of hypertension, and history of peptic ulcer disease are not critical contraindications for tadalafil use. While caution may be needed in patients with certain conditions, the highest priority is addressing the interaction with nitrates.

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