Nursing Elites

1. A nurse that is always ready to answer for all his actions and decision is said to be:

• A. Accountable C. Critical thinker
• B. Responsible D. Assertive
• C.
• D.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patient safety and efficacy of care depend on actions rooted in established nursing protocols that consider both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.

2. What is the fundamental difference between nursing diagnoses and collaborative problems?

• A. Collaborative problems are managed by nurses using physician-prescribed interventions.
• B. Collaborative problems can be addressed by independent nursing interventions.
• C. Physician-prescribed interventions are incorporated into nursing diagnoses.
• D. Nursing diagnoses include physiologic complications that nurses monitor to detect status changes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, as collaborative problems necessitate the collective expertise and skills of numerous healthcare professionals, including nurses. These problems can be dealt with through independent nursing interventions in cooperation with other team members. Option A is incorrect because collaborative problems aren't strictly managed with physician-prescribed interventions. Option C is incorrect because nursing diagnoses aim at identifying and treating actual or potential health issues, rather than merely integrating physician-prescribed interventions. Option D is incorrect because nursing diagnoses aim at identifying patient issues, not solely physiologic complications, and guide the necessary nursing care, not just monitor for changes.

3. Which strategy would most likely help alleviate some of the nausea that a 10-week pregnant woman experiences every morning, preventing her from eating breakfast?

• A. Increase intake of dairy products, including yogurt and ice cream
• B. Maintain an upright position while eating
• C. Opt for foods that are high in fiber
• D. Consume small, frequent meals when hunger strikes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Consume small, frequent meals when hunger strikes.' This strategy is ideal for managing morning sickness because it prevents the stomach from becoming too empty, which can exacerbate nausea. Option A may not be helpful because dairy products can sometimes worsen nausea. Option B is not the most effective solution as the sitting position does not directly impact nausea levels. Option C, while generally beneficial for digestion and overall health, does not specifically address the issue of pregnancy-related nausea.

4. Which statement indicates understanding of a low-fiber diet?

• A. I can cut up carrots and celery sticks for my lunch.
• B. I will eat a bran muffin for my mid-morning snack.
• C. I will have oatmeal with skim milk for my breakfast.
• D. I should choose canned peaches for my fruit serving.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because canned peaches are low in fiber compared to the other options provided. Option A contains high-fiber vegetables (carrots and celery), option B includes a bran muffin which is fiber-rich, and option C involves oatmeal which is also a good source of fiber. Therefore, choosing canned peaches aligns with a low-fiber diet.

5. A patient who reports stomach ulcers should avoid all the following foods, except one. Which is the exception?

• A. Proteins
• B. Caffeine
• C. Calcium
• D. Wheat

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patients with stomach ulcers are advised to avoid foods that can increase stomach acid levels, such as caffeine, proteins, and calcium. Wheat, on the other hand, is generally well-tolerated by individuals with ulcers as it does not stimulate gastric secretions. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A (Proteins), B (Caffeine), and C (Calcium) are not recommended for patients with stomach ulcers due to their potential to exacerbate symptoms.

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