Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following clinical findings in a 51-year-old woman is consistent with Graves disease?

• A. Thin hair, exophthalmos, hyperreflexia, and pretibial edema.
• B. Thin hair, exophthalmos, weight gain, and constipation.
• C. Thick hair, bradycardia, weight loss, and dry skin.
• D. Thick hair, bradycardia, weight gain, and constipation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The clinical findings of thin hair, exophthalmos (bulging eyes), hyperreflexia, and pretibial edema are classic manifestations of Graves disease, an autoimmune condition that results in hyperthyroidism. Choice B is incorrect because weight gain and constipation are more indicative of hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism seen in Graves disease. Choice C is incorrect as the symptoms described are more characteristic of hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism. Choice D is also incorrect as the symptoms listed are not consistent with Graves disease but rather suggest hypothyroidism.

2. A patient has been prescribed mifepristone (RU-486) to terminate a pregnancy. How does this drug achieve its therapeutic effect?

• A. By inhibiting the action of progesterone, which is necessary to maintain pregnancy.
• B. By increasing estrogen levels, which induce uterine contractions.
• C. By altering the uterine lining, preventing implantation.
• D. By stimulating uterine contractions, which expel the embryo.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mifepristone (RU-486) functions by inhibiting the action of progesterone, a hormone crucial for maintaining pregnancy. By blocking progesterone, mifepristone disrupts the uterine environment necessary for pregnancy continuation, ultimately leading to termination. Choice B is incorrect because mifepristone does not increase estrogen levels; instead, it acts on progesterone. Choice C is incorrect as mifepristone's mechanism does not involve altering the uterine lining to prevent implantation. Choice D is incorrect because mifepristone does not directly stimulate uterine contractions; its primary action is through progesterone inhibition.

3. A patient is being administered chemotherapeutic agents for the treatment of cancer. Which of the following blood cells will be stimulated by the colony-stimulating factors in response to the effects of the chemotherapy?

• A. White blood cells
• B. Red blood cells
• C. Phagocytes
• D. Myocardial cells

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is White blood cells. Colony-stimulating factors stimulate the production of white blood cells in response to the effects of chemotherapy, as it can lead to myelosuppression. Red blood cells are not directly stimulated by colony-stimulating factors. Phagocytes are a type of white blood cell involved in immune responses, but they are not specifically stimulated by colony-stimulating factors. Myocardial cells are cardiac muscle cells and are not directly involved in the response to chemotherapy-induced myelosuppression.

4. What aspect of hormonal contraceptives places a woman at the greatest risk for the development of blood clots?

• A. Hormonal contraceptives increase serum triglyceride and cholesterol levels.
• B. Hormonal contraceptives increase platelet levels.
• C. Hormonal contraceptives increase blood levels of clotting factors.
• D. Hormonal contraceptives cause injury to blood vessel linings.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Hormonal contraceptives increase blood levels of clotting factors, particularly factors II, VII, IX, and X. This elevation in clotting factors can predispose individuals to thromboembolic events, including blood clots. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hormonal contraceptives do not have a significant effect on serum triglycerides and cholesterol, platelet levels, or causing direct injury to blood vessel linings as the primary mechanism for clot formation.

5. A 43-year-old man has tested positive for systemic candidiasis, and the care team has decided on IV fluconazole as a first-line treatment. When administering this medication, the nurse should

• A. administer the drug with lactated Ringer's.
• B. infuse the drug no faster than 200 mg/h.
• C. avoid administering the drug through a peripheral IV.
• D. administer prophylactic heparin prior to the fluconazole.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering IV fluconazole, the nurse should avoid administering the drug through a peripheral IV. Fluconazole is known to cause phlebitis and tissue irritation if infused through a peripheral IV line. It is recommended to administer fluconazole through a central venous catheter to reduce the risk of complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to administer the drug with lactated Ringer's, infuse it at a particular rate, or administer prophylactic heparin prior to fluconazole in this scenario.

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