a nurse on a medical surgical unit is performing an admission assessment of a client who has copd with emphysema the client reports that he has a freq
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam

1. During an admission assessment of a client with COPD and emphysema complaining of a frequent productive cough and shortness of breath, what assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: COPD and emphysema are chronic respiratory conditions that can lead to changes in the shape of the chest. In clients with COPD, the anteroposterior diameter of the chest often increases, giving a barrel chest appearance. This change in chest shape is due to hyperinflation of the lungs and is a common physical finding in clients with COPD and emphysema. The other options are not typically associated with COPD and emphysema. Respiratory alkalosis is not a common finding in these clients. An oxygen saturation level of 96% is within the normal range and does not specifically relate to COPD. Petechiae on the chest are not typically associated with COPD or emphysema.

2. While caring for a client who was injured in a motor-vehicle crash and reports dyspnea and severe pain, a nurse in the emergency department notes that the client's chest moves inward during inspiration and bulges out during expiration. The nurse should identify this finding as which of the following?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Flail chest is characterized by paradoxical chest movement, where the chest moves inward during inspiration and bulges out during expiration. This occurs due to multiple rib fractures causing a segment of the chest wall to move independently from the rest of the thorax. Atelectasis refers to collapsed lung tissue, hemothorax is blood in the pleural space, and pneumothorax is air in the pleural space. In this scenario, the client's presentation aligns with the characteristic findings of flail chest.

3. When caring for an older adult client with a pulmonary infection, what action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing the client's level of consciousness is the priority because it provides crucial information on the client's neurological status and response to the infection. Changes in consciousness can indicate deterioration or improvement in the client's condition, guiding further interventions and treatment.

4. A healthcare provider collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the healthcare provider include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (Select ONE that does not apply)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For accurate pulmonary function tests (PFTs), it is essential to communicate that the client did not use bronchodilators within the specified timeframe, did not smoke for the required duration before the test, and can comply with different breathing maneuvers. The use of a treadmill is not part of the PFT procedure and is unrelated to the testing process. Therefore, communicating about the client's ability to run on a treadmill is not relevant to the pulmonary function tests being conducted by the respiratory therapist.

5. When a client develops an airway obstruction from a foreign body but remains conscious, which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops an airway obstruction and remains conscious, the nurse's initial action should be to administer the abdominal thrust maneuver. This technique, also known as the Heimlich maneuver, can help dislodge the obstructing object and clear the airway. Inserting an oral airway, turning the client to the side, or performing a blind finger sweep are not recommended as the first interventions for a conscious individual with an airway obstruction.

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