Nursing Elites

1. A nursing student learns about modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Which factors does this include? (SATA)

• A. Age
• B. Hypertension
• C. Obesity
• D. Smoking

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypertension, obesity, smoking, and excessive stress are all modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Age is a nonmodifiable risk factor as it is a natural process of life.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the arterial blood gas results for a client in the ICU who has kidney failure and determines the client has respiratory acidosis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Widened QRS complexes
• B. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
• C. Bounding peripheral pulses
• D. Warm, flushed skin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Respiratory acidosis is a condition characterized by increased carbon dioxide levels in the blood, resulting in acidosis. One of the potential consequences of respiratory acidosis is the development of electrolyte imbalances, particularly hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia can lead to cardiac conduction abnormalities, manifested as widened QRS complexes on an electrocardiogram (ECG). Therefore, in a client with respiratory acidosis, the healthcare professional should expect to find widened QRS complexes as a result of the associated hyperkalemia.

3. What instruction should be included when teaching a client with asthma about using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI)?

• A. Shake the inhaler well before use.
• B. Inhale rapidly while administering the medication.
• C. Administer the medication while lying down.
• D. Hold the inhaler 2 inches away from the mouth while inhaling.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Shaking the inhaler well before use ensures that the medication is properly mixed, allowing for an accurate dose with each administration. Inhaling slowly and deeply, not rapidly, helps the medication reach the lungs effectively. The medication should be administered while sitting or standing to facilitate proper lung expansion and airflow. Holding the inhaler 2 inches away from the mouth can lead to medication loss; it should be placed directly in the mouth or used with a spacer to optimize delivery to the airways.

4. A client with dyspnea and difficulty climbing stairs is classified as having class III dyspnea. Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

• A. Assistance with activities of daily living.
• B. Daily physical therapy activities.
• C. Oxygen therapy at 2 liters per nasal cannula.
• D. Complete bedrest with frequent repositioning.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Class III dyspnea indicates significant limitations in activity due to shortness of breath. Clients with this level of dyspnea should be encouraged to participate in activities within their tolerance levels. Providing assistance with activities of daily living helps conserve energy for essential tasks while promoting independence. Oxygen therapy is only necessary if hypoxia is present, and complete bedrest is generally not recommended for clients with dyspnea unless specifically indicated.

5. A client is receiving oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client is able to ambulate in the hall without dyspnea.
• B. The client has a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute.
• C. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• D. The client has a productive cough.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Effective oxygen therapy should improve the client's ability to perform activities without dyspnea. This indicates that the oxygen therapy is adequately supporting the client's respiratory needs. An oxygen saturation of 92% may suggest the need for a higher flow rate to improve oxygenation. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is elevated, indicating potential respiratory distress. A productive cough does not necessarily indicate effective oxygen therapy, as it is a symptom of respiratory irritation or infection, not oxygenation status.

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