a nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for lithium which of the following client statements indicates an under
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2024

1. A client who has a new prescription for lithium is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients prescribed lithium need regular monitoring of blood levels to ensure the medication's effectiveness and safety. This monitoring helps to keep the medication within the therapeutic range and prevent toxicity. Choice B is incorrect because lithium is usually taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice C is not directly related to lithium therapy; however, excessive sodium intake can affect lithium levels. Choice D is incorrect as abruptly stopping lithium can lead to adverse effects and should only be done under healthcare provider guidance.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has diaper dermatitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: Applying zinc oxide ointment to the irritated area is the most appropriate action for diaper dermatitis. Zinc oxide is a barrier cream that helps protect the skin and promote healing. Choice B is incorrect because using store-bought baby wipes may contain chemicals or fragrances that can further irritate the skin. Choice C is incorrect as talcum powder can also worsen the condition by drying out the skin. Choice D is incorrect because a warm compress is not typically used for diaper dermatitis; it may provide relief for other conditions but is not the best option for diaper dermatitis.

3. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient with a central line for infection?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring the dressing site daily is crucial for detecting early signs of infection in patients with central lines. Checking for redness and swelling (choice B) is important but may indicate a more advanced stage of infection. Monitoring for fever (choice C) can also be a sign of infection, but it is a later manifestation. Flushing the central line (choice D) is necessary for maintaining patency but does not directly monitor for infection.

4. In an emergency department following a community disaster, a healthcare provider is performing triage for multiple clients. To which of the following types of injuries should the provider assign the highest priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During disaster triage, clients with severe injuries that are immediately life-threatening and have a high likelihood of mortality without intervention are assigned the highest priority. A below-the-knee amputation falls into this category as it indicates a critical injury that requires immediate attention to prevent further complications or loss of life. Fractured tibia, a 95% full-thickness body burn, and a 10 cm laceration to the forearm, while serious, do not pose the same level of immediate life-threatening risk as a below-the-knee amputation in the context of disaster triage.

5. Which lab value is essential for a patient receiving warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the INR (International Normalized Ratio) for a patient receiving warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is crucial to assess the effectiveness of warfarin in preventing blood clots while minimizing the risk of bleeding. Monitoring sodium levels (choice B), potassium levels (choice C), or platelet count (choice D) is not specifically essential for patients on warfarin therapy and does not provide direct information on the drug's anticoagulant effects.

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