a nurse manager is planning to teach staff about critical pathways which of the following information should the nurse include
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ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet

1. A nurse manager is planning to teach staff about critical pathways. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Critical pathways are structured, multi-disciplinary plans of care designed to decrease health care costs and improve outcomes by standardizing and streamlining processes. Choice A is incorrect because critical pathways have specific timeframes for completion. Choice C is incorrect as patients are expected to follow the critical pathway without deviations to achieve optimal outcomes. Choice D is incorrect because budgets do not create critical pathways; rather, they are based on clinical guidelines and best practices.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL is higher than expected and should be reported to prevent hyperglycemia complications. High blood glucose levels can lead to hyperglycemia, causing various issues such as increased risk of infection and delayed wound healing. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits for a client receiving continuous enteral feedings and do not require immediate reporting.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent tube feeding to a client who has a gastrostomy tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer an intermittent tube feeding to a client with a gastrostomy tube is to flush the tube with 30 mL of water before feeding. This step helps ensure the patency of the tube by clearing any blockages or residuals. Choice A is incorrect because flushing after feeding would not prevent clogging before the feeding. Choice C is unrelated to tube feeding administration. Choice D is incorrect as the height for the feeding bag is usually recommended to be at or below the level of the stomach to prevent complications like aspiration.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An INR of 3.0 is elevated, indicating impaired blood clotting function, which poses a significant risk of bleeding in clients with cirrhosis. This finding should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A (Albumin 3.5 g/dL) is within the normal range and indicates adequate liver synthetic function, so it does not require immediate reporting. Choice B (Bilirubin 1.0 mg/dL) is also within the normal range and typically seen in clients without significant liver dysfunction, so it does not need urgent attention. Choice D (Ammonia 80 mcg/dL) is elevated, but it is not the priority finding in cirrhosis; elevated ammonia levels are associated with hepatic encephalopathy rather than increased bleeding risk.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for a peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action to prevent infection when caring for a client with a new peripheral IV catheter is to change the IV site every 48 to 72 hours. Shaving the hair at the insertion site can actually increase the risk of infection by causing microabrasions in the skin. While cleansing the site with povidone-iodine is important before insertion, it is not necessary to continue doing so once the IV is in place. Wearing sterile gloves when changing the dressing is crucial for maintaining aseptic technique but does not directly prevent infection related to the IV site itself.

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