Nursing Elites

1. A nurse manager is planning to teach staff about critical pathways. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Critical pathways have unlimited timeframes for completion.
• B. Critical pathways are designed to decrease health care costs.
• C. Patients follow the critical pathway if variances occur.
• D. Budgets are used to create the critical pathway.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Critical pathways are structured, multi-disciplinary plans of care designed to decrease health care costs and improve outcomes by standardizing and streamlining processes. Choice A is incorrect because critical pathways have specific timeframes for completion. Choice C is incorrect as patients are expected to follow the critical pathway without deviations to achieve optimal outcomes. Choice D is incorrect because budgets do not create critical pathways; rather, they are based on clinical guidelines and best practices.

2. How should bleeding in a patient on warfarin be monitored?

• A. Monitor INR levels
• B. Monitor hemoglobin levels
• C. Monitor potassium levels
• D. Monitor platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR levels. INR levels are the most critical indicator for monitoring bleeding risk in patients on warfarin. INR stands for International Normalized Ratio and specifically measures the clotting tendency of the blood. Monitoring hemoglobin levels, potassium levels, or platelet count are not as directly relevant to assessing bleeding risk in patients on warfarin.

3. A client prescribed clozapine is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. “I should report a sore throat to my provider.”
• B. “I should avoid drinking grapefruit juice while taking this medication.”
• C. “I should take this medication with food.”
• D. “I should avoid taking this medication with food.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a serious condition that decreases the number of white blood cells. Reporting a sore throat is crucial as it could be a sign of infection. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between clozapine and grapefruit juice. Choice C is incorrect because clozapine is usually taken without regard to meals. Choice D is incorrect as clozapine is generally taken without food to enhance absorption.

4. What is the appropriate action for a patient experiencing chest pain?

• A. Administer aspirin
• B. Reposition the patient
• C. Check oxygen saturation
• D. Prepare for surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for a patient experiencing chest pain is to administer aspirin. Aspirin helps reduce the risk of clot formation in patients with chest pain, as it has antiplatelet effects. Repositioning the patient may not address the underlying cause of the chest pain. Checking oxygen saturation is important but not the initial priority in this scenario. Surgery is not typically the first-line treatment for chest pain without further assessment and diagnostic procedures.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and receiving electronic fetal monitoring. The nurse is reviewing the monitor tracing and notes early decelerations. What should the nurse expect?

• A. Fetal hypoxia
• B. Abruptio placentae
• C. Post maturity
• D. Head compression

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Early decelerations are caused by head compression resulting from the fetal head being compressed during contractions. They are considered benign and do not indicate fetal distress. Choice A, fetal hypoxia, is incorrect because early decelerations are not associated with fetal hypoxia. Choice B, abruptio placentae, is incorrect as it is a condition where the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall. Choice C, post maturity, is incorrect as it refers to a fetus that remains in the uterus past the due date.

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