Nursing Elites

1. A nurse manager is planning to teach staff about critical pathways. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Critical pathways have unlimited timeframes for completion.
• B. Critical pathways are designed to decrease health care costs.
• C. Patients follow the critical pathway if variances occur.
• D. Budgets are used to create the critical pathway.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Critical pathways are structured, multi-disciplinary plans of care designed to decrease health care costs and improve outcomes by standardizing and streamlining processes. Choice A is incorrect because critical pathways have specific timeframes for completion. Choice C is incorrect as patients are expected to follow the critical pathway without deviations to achieve optimal outcomes. Choice D is incorrect because budgets do not create critical pathways; rather, they are based on clinical guidelines and best practices.

2. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis and is prescribed methotrexate. Which of the following results should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. White blood cell count 8,000/mm3
• B. Platelet count 150,000/mm3
• C. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
• D. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 60 units/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 60 units/L. An elevated AST level indicates liver damage, a side effect of methotrexate, and should be reported. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not indicate potential complications related to methotrexate therapy.

3. Which lab value is essential for a patient receiving warfarin therapy?

• A. Monitor INR
• B. Monitor sodium levels
• C. Monitor potassium levels
• D. Monitor platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the INR (International Normalized Ratio) for a patient receiving warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is crucial to assess the effectiveness of warfarin in preventing blood clots while minimizing the risk of bleeding. Monitoring sodium levels (choice B), potassium levels (choice C), or platelet count (choice D) is not specifically essential for patients on warfarin therapy and does not provide direct information on the drug's anticoagulant effects.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is 24 hours postoperative following an open cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Urinary output of 100 mL in 4 hours
• B. Serosanguineous wound drainage
• C. Heart rate of 94/min
• D. WBC count of 15,000/mm³

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A WBC count of 15,000/mm³ is elevated and may indicate infection, which should be reported. High WBC count is a sign of inflammation or infection, and in a postoperative client, it can be indicative of surgical site infection or another complication. Urinary output, serosanguineous wound drainage, and a heart rate of 94/min are all within normal ranges for a client post cholecystectomy and do not raise immediate concerns for infection or complications.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of hypothyroidism. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Weight gain.
• B. Bradycardia.
• C. Tachycardia.
• D. Heat intolerance.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bradycardia. Bradycardia, or a slow heart rate, is a common finding in clients with hypothyroidism because of the decreased metabolic rate associated with this condition. Weight gain is also a common symptom of hypothyroidism due to the metabolic changes, making choice A incorrect. Tachycardia, or a rapid heart rate, is typically seen in hyperthyroidism, not hypothyroidism, so choice C is incorrect. Heat intolerance is more commonly associated with hyperthyroidism rather than hypothyroidism, making choice D incorrect.

Similar Questions