Nursing Elites

1. When in opposition to an immediate superior, a nurse manager should use which important strategy in a confrontation?

• A. Using 'I' language
• B. Using absolutes
• C. Using 'why' questions
• D. Using negative assertions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When in a confrontation, using 'I' language is crucial for a nurse manager. This approach allows the manager to express personal feelings without sounding accusatory, which can help reduce defensiveness and promote open communication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Using absolutes can come off as rigid and may escalate the conflict. 'Why' questions can be perceived as confrontational and may put the other person on the defensive. Negative assertions can lead to a more hostile exchange rather than fostering a constructive dialogue.

2. Which statement to a patient newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes is correct?

• A. Complications of type 2 diabetes are less serious than those of type 1 diabetes.
• B. Insulin is not used to control blood glucose in patients with type 2 diabetes.
• C. Changes in diet and exercise may control blood glucose levels in type 2 diabetes.
• D. Type 2 diabetes is usually diagnosed when the patient is admitted with a hyperglycemic coma.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct statement to convey to a patient newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. Lifestyle modifications, such as changes in diet and exercise, are essential components of managing type 2 diabetes. These changes can help control blood glucose levels and improve overall health. Options A, B, and D are incorrect statements. While complications of type 2 diabetes can be serious, they are different from those of type 1 diabetes. Some patients with type 2 diabetes may require insulin therapy, but it is not true that insulin is not used at all. Type 2 diabetes is not typically diagnosed during a hyperglycemic coma, as it is usually identified through routine screenings or symptoms unrelated to a coma.

3. A client who had a stroke resulting in aphasia and dysphagia needs assistance. Which of the following tasks should the nurse assign to an assistive personnel (AP)?

• A. Assist the client with a partial bed bath.
• B. Measure the client's BP after the nurse administers an antihypertensive medication.
• C. Test the client's swallowing ability by providing thickened liquids.
• D. Use a communication board to ask what the client wants for lunch.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because assisting the client with a partial bed bath is within the scope of practice for an assistive personnel and does not require specialized medical knowledge. Choice B involves measuring BP, which requires specific training and assessment skills that an assistive personnel may not have. Choice C involves testing swallowing ability, which should be done by a healthcare provider due to the risks involved in dysphagia. Choice D involves communication, which is crucial but should be done by someone with training in managing aphasia to ensure effective communication with the client.

4. Which of the following is an example of a tertiary prevention activity?

• A. Administering immunizations
• B. Physical therapy for stroke patients
• C. Routine health screenings
• D. Health education campaigns

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, physical therapy for stroke patients. Tertiary prevention aims to prevent complications and improve the quality of life for individuals who already have a disease or condition. Administering immunizations (choice A) is an example of primary prevention to prevent the onset of diseases. Routine health screenings (choice C) are part of secondary prevention to detect diseases early. Health education campaigns (choice D) typically fall under primary prevention by educating and promoting healthy behaviors to prevent diseases.

5. One reason for conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is:

• A. It is needed to protect the organization from legal actions.
• B. It is required after a strenuous interview.
• C. It is mandated by law.
• D. It is necessary to screen for disabilities that may impact employment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is crucial to protect the organization from legal actions. This examination helps ensure that the applicant meets the health standards required for the job, reducing the risk of potential liabilities for the organization related to health issues that may arise during employment. Choice B is incorrect because the exam is not a follow-up to a strenuous interview. Choice C is incorrect as not all comprehensive medical exams are mandated by law; they are often part of an organization's policy. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of the exam is to assess the applicant's health status in relation to the job requirements, not to screen for disabilities.

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