ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019
1. Several factors are considered in the calculation of the amount of FTEs. Which of the following is NOT considered when calculating the FTEs?
- A. Hours of care provided
- B. Ancillary staff
- C. Procedures to be done
- D. Types of patients
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When calculating Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs), factors such as the hours of work for the staff for two weeks, average daily census, and types of patients are considered. However, the hours of care provided are not typically included in the calculation of FTEs. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B, ancillary staff, can impact FTE calculations as they contribute to the overall workload. Choice C, procedures to be done, can also influence FTE calculations, especially if they affect staffing requirements. Choice D, types of patients, play a role in determining the level of care needed and subsequently impact FTE calculations.
2. A new manager is implementing an initiative with the desired outcome of having the unit run more smoothly. What quality is the manager demonstrating?
- A. Being unrealistic
- B. Being a change agent
- C. Being democratic
- D. Being authoritarian
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Being a change agent. The manager is demonstrating the quality of being a change agent by implementing an initiative aimed at improving the unit's operations. A change agent initiates and drives changes to enhance effectiveness and efficiency within the unit. Choice A is incorrect because the manager's actions are not described as unrealistic but rather proactive. Choice C, being democratic, is incorrect as it does not relate to the manager's initiative to improve unit operations. Choice D, being authoritarian, is also incorrect as the manager is not described as enforcing changes through strict control and power.
3. What is the main purpose of recruitment activities?
- A. Assess an applicant's motivation
- B. Generate a pool of qualified applicants
- C. Assess an applicant's skills
- D. Assess an applicant's ability
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The main purpose of recruitment activities is to generate a pool of qualified applicants. Recruitment aims to attract a diverse range of candidates and create a talent pool from which the organization can select the most suitable individuals. Option A is incorrect as assessing motivation is typically part of the selection process rather than the recruitment phase. Option C focuses more on skill assessment, which is also generally done during the selection process. Option D is too broad and overlaps with assessing skills and qualifications rather than the primary purpose of recruitment.
4. A technique used to eliminate negative behavior by ignoring the behavior is known as __________.
- A. Punishment
- B. Extinction
- C. Shaping
- D. Equity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Extinction.' Extinction is a behavioral psychology technique where undesirable behavior is ignored, leading to its eventual decrease or elimination. This process involves withholding reinforcement that was previously maintaining the behavior. Choice A, 'Punishment,' involves applying negative consequences to reduce unwanted behavior, which is different from extinction. Choice C, 'Shaping,' is a method of gradually molding or reinforcing behaviors to reach a desired behavior, not ignoring negative behavior. Choice D, 'Equity,' refers to fairness and equal treatment, which is unrelated to eliminating negative behavior through ignoring it.
5. Which laboratory value reported to the nurse by the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) indicates the most urgent need for the nurse�s assessment of the patient?
- A. Bedtime glucose of 140 mg/dL
- B. Noon blood glucose of 52 mg/dL
- C. Fasting blood glucose of 130 mg/dL
- D. 2-hr postprandial glucose of 220 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale:
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