there are several things factored into the calculation of the amount of ftes which of following are not considered when calculating the ftes except
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019

1. Several factors are considered in the calculation of the amount of FTEs. Which of the following is NOT considered when calculating the FTEs?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When calculating Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs), factors such as the hours of work for the staff for two weeks, average daily census, and types of patients are considered. However, the hours of care provided are not typically included in the calculation of FTEs. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B, ancillary staff, can impact FTE calculations as they contribute to the overall workload. Choice C, procedures to be done, can also influence FTE calculations, especially if they affect staffing requirements. Choice D, types of patients, play a role in determining the level of care needed and subsequently impact FTE calculations.

2. After examining her client's abdomen and noting assessment of significant findings, even though the client says it doesn't hurt, the nurse says to a colleague, 'I think something is going on here; I am going to investigate further.' This nurse is using:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Intuition. In this scenario, the nurse is relying on intuition, which refers to a 'gut feeling' or instinctive understanding without the conscious use of reasoning. Deductive reasoning (choice A) involves drawing specific conclusions from general principles. Trial and error (choice C) is a problem-solving method that involves trying various methods until the correct one is found. The modified scientific method (choice D) refers to a structured approach to conducting experiments in a scientific setting, which is not applicable in this situation where the nurse is relying on a hunch or intuition.

3. What is the main purpose of a clinical audit?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main purpose of a clinical audit is to identify areas for improvement in clinical practices. While patient satisfaction might be a component evaluated during an audit, the primary goal is to ensure that care is safe, effective, and patient-centered, rather than solely focusing on satisfaction. Evaluating the effectiveness of clinical practices is a related but more specific goal compared to the broader aim of identifying areas for improvement. Standardizing patient care protocols can be a result of a clinical audit, but it is not the main purpose, which is to pinpoint areas needing enhancement.

4. A 32-year-old patient with diabetes is starting on intensive insulin therapy. Which type of insulin will the nurse discuss using for mealtime coverage?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For mealtime coverage in intensive insulin therapy, rapid-acting insulins like Lispro (Humalog) are used. Lispro has a quick onset of action, making it suitable for covering the rise in blood sugar levels after meals. Glargine (Lantus), Detemir (Levemir), and NPH (Humulin N) are all long-acting insulins and are not appropriate for mealtime coverage as they do not act quickly enough to manage postprandial glucose spikes.

5. What is the focus of a continuous quality improvement program?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Client. Continuous quality improvement programs are primarily focused on improving services and outcomes for clients or patients. While families, nurses, and physicians are essential in healthcare, in the context of quality improvement, the main focus is on enhancing the experience and results for the clients receiving care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the primary goal of a continuous quality improvement program, which is to enhance client satisfaction, safety, and outcomes.

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