ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019
1. Several factors are considered in the calculation of the amount of FTEs. Which of the following is NOT considered when calculating the FTEs?
- A. Hours of care provided
- B. Ancillary staff
- C. Procedures to be done
- D. Types of patients
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When calculating Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs), factors such as the hours of work for the staff for two weeks, average daily census, and types of patients are considered. However, the hours of care provided are not typically included in the calculation of FTEs. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B, ancillary staff, can impact FTE calculations as they contribute to the overall workload. Choice C, procedures to be done, can also influence FTE calculations, especially if they affect staffing requirements. Choice D, types of patients, play a role in determining the level of care needed and subsequently impact FTE calculations.
2. When a client experiences a major incident, what is the time frame for reporting the incident?
- A. 24 hours.
- B. 36 hours.
- C. 48 hours.
- D. 72 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: '24 hours.' It is crucial to report a major incident within 24 hours of its occurrence to ensure timely and accurate documentation. Reporting incidents promptly allows for a swift response and investigation to prevent future occurrences. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they exceed the recommended time frame for reporting a major incident, which is 24 hours.
3. What is the main focus of a clinical governance framework?
- A. Financial performance
- B. Regulatory compliance
- C. Patient care quality
- D. Staff satisfaction
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The main focus of a clinical governance framework is patient care quality. This framework is designed to ensure that patient care is safe, effective, and patient-centered. Choice A, financial performance, is not the main focus of a clinical governance framework, although financial aspects may be considered. Choice B, regulatory compliance, is important but not the primary focus of a clinical governance framework. Choice D, staff satisfaction, is also important but is not the main focus of a clinical governance framework, which primarily centers around patient care quality.
4. A 48-year-old male patient screened for diabetes at a clinic has a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dL (6.7 mmol/L). The nurse will plan to teach the patient about
- A. self-monitoring of blood glucose
- B. using low doses of regular insulin
- C. lifestyle changes to lower blood glucose
- D. effects of oral hypoglycemic medications
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient has a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dL (6.7 mmol/L), indicating prediabetes, the initial approach is focused on lifestyle modifications to lower blood glucose levels. These changes may include dietary adjustments, increased physical activity, and weight management. Self-monitoring of blood glucose, insulin therapy, and oral hypoglycemic medications are not typically the first-line interventions for patients with prediabetes. Educating the patient about lifestyle changes to lower blood glucose is the most appropriate action at this stage.
5. After the nurse has finished teaching a patient who has a new prescription for exenatide (Byetta), which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective?
- A. �I may feel hungrier than usual when I take this medicine.�
- B. �I will not need to worry about hypoglycemia with the Byetta.�
- C. �I should take my daily aspirin at least an hour before the Byetta.�
- D. �I will take the pill at the same time I eat breakfast in the morning.�
Correct answer: C
Rationale:
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