Nursing Elites

1. Although technology has seen many advances, which two ethical principles may be in conflict because of technology?

• A. Beneficence and justice
• B. Beneficence and nonmaleficence
• C. Beneficence and veracity
• D. Beneficence and confidentiality

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Beneficence and nonmaleficence. Beneficence refers to the obligation to do good and act in the best interest of the patient, while nonmaleficence means to 'do no harm.' With advances in technology, there can be situations where the pursuit of benefit (beneficence) may inadvertently cause harm (nonmaleficence), leading to a conflict between these two ethical principles. Choice A, beneficence and justice, is incorrect because justice pertains to fairness and equality in the distribution of resources and treatments, not conflicting directly with beneficence. Choice C, beneficence and veracity, involves the obligation to tell the truth and is not in direct conflict with beneficence. Choice D, beneficence and confidentiality, relate to maintaining privacy and trust, which can complement rather than conflict with beneficence in most cases.

2. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for a client who has a new prescription for wrist restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Pad the client's wrists before applying the restraints.
• B. Evaluate the client's circulation every 8 hours after application.
• C. Secure the restraint ties to the bed's side rails.
• D. Remove the restraints every 4 hours to evaluate the client's status.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When applying wrist restraints, it is crucial to secure the restraint ties to the bed's side rails to ensure the client's safety and prevent injury. Padding the client's wrists (Choice A) is not a standard practice and may compromise the effectiveness of the restraints. Evaluating the client's circulation (Choice B) is important but should be done more frequently than every 8 hours to ensure prompt detection of any circulation issues. Removing the restraints every 4 hours (Choice D) is unnecessary and may increase the risk of injury or agitation in the client.

3. In dealing with conflict, the manager knows that feelings or perceptions about the situation will have an effect. According to Filey, what is this effect known as?

• A. Conflict suppression
• B. Resolution aftermath
• C. Antecedent conditions
• D. Manifest behavior

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Feelings or perceptions about the situation initiate behavior, known as manifest behavior. Antecedent conditions refer to preexisting conditions that may have led to the conflict but are not the immediate effect of feelings or perceptions. Resolution aftermath pertains to the consequences or outcomes following conflict resolution. Conflict suppression refers to the action of suppressing conflict without addressing its root causes, which is a subsequent step after the manifestation of behavior.

4. Lippitt's phases of change are important factors in the change process. The phase that involves key people in data collection is known as:

• A. Assess the motivation.
• B. Choose a change agent.
• C. Diagnose the problem.
• D. Maintain the change.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Diagnose the problem.' In Lippitt's phases of change, the first step is to diagnose the problem, which involves key people in data collection and problem-solving. This step is crucial as it helps identify the root causes of the issues that need to be addressed. Assessing the motivation (A) comes later in the change process once the problem has been diagnosed. Choosing a change agent (B) and maintaining the change (D) are also important steps in the change process but do not specifically involve key people in data collection as in the diagnosis phase.

5. One reason for conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is:

• A. It is needed to protect the organization from legal actions.
• B. It is required after a strenuous interview.
• C. It is mandated by law.
• D. It is necessary to screen for disabilities that may impact employment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is crucial to protect the organization from legal actions. This examination helps ensure that the applicant meets the health standards required for the job, reducing the risk of potential liabilities for the organization related to health issues that may arise during employment. Choice B is incorrect because the exam is not a follow-up to a strenuous interview. Choice C is incorrect as not all comprehensive medical exams are mandated by law; they are often part of an organization's policy. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of the exam is to assess the applicant's health status in relation to the job requirements, not to screen for disabilities.

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