a nurse is assessing a client in active labor which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam

1. A client in active labor is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a baseline FHR of 170/min indicates fetal tachycardia, which needs further evaluation. Choice A about contractions lasting 80 seconds is within the normal range for active labor. Choice C, early decelerations in the FHR, are generally considered benign and do not require immediate reporting. Choice D, a temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), falls within normal limits for a laboring client and does not warrant immediate reporting.

2. A patient refused a newly opened fentanyl patch. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient refuses a newly opened fentanyl patch, the nurse should ask another nurse to witness the disposal of the new patch. This action ensures accountability, proper protocol, and prevents any potential diversion or misuse of the medication. Disposing of the patch in a sharps container (Choice B) is not sufficient as it does not address the need for witness accountability. Sending the patch back to the pharmacy (Choice C) may not be appropriate without proper documentation and witness. Simply documenting the refusal and removing the patch (Choice D) may lack the necessary verification of proper disposal.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. The nurse should identify that which of the following client reports is an indication of hypocalcemia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Numbness and tingling of the fingers.' Post-thyroidectomy, hypocalcemia is a concern due to potential damage to the parathyroid glands that regulate calcium levels. Numbness and tingling of the fingers are classic signs of hypocalcemia. Constipation (Choice A) is not typically associated with hypocalcemia. Frequent urination (Choice B) is more indicative of conditions like diabetes or a urinary tract infection. Increased thirst (Choice D) is commonly seen in conditions such as diabetes insipidus or uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, not specifically related to hypocalcemia.

4. How should signs of infection in a post-surgical patient be assessed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the surgical site is crucial in identifying early signs of infection post-surgery. Changes such as redness, swelling, warmth, or drainage may indicate an infection developing. While monitoring vital signs and fever are important in infection assessment, they are general indicators and may not show localized signs at the surgical site. Checking for abnormal breath sounds is more relevant when assessing respiratory issues rather than infection at the surgical site.

5. Which lab value should be closely monitored for a patient receiving heparin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial to monitor when a patient is receiving heparin therapy. Heparin works by potentiating antithrombin III, leading to the inhibition of thrombin and factor Xa. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range for heparin, reducing the risk of bleeding complications. Monitoring INR (Choice B) is more relevant for patients on warfarin therapy. Monitoring potassium (Choice C) and sodium levels (Choice D) is important but not specific to heparin therapy.

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