a nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet

1. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Start the transfusion with 0.9% sodium chloride. 0.9% sodium chloride is the only IV solution that is compatible with blood products and should be used to prime the tubing before a transfusion. Choice A is incorrect because vital signs should be monitored more frequently, typically every 15 minutes at the beginning of the transfusion. Choice C is incorrect as blood transfusions are usually administered over 2-4 hours, not 6 hours. Choice D is incorrect as the first 500 mL of blood should be infused slowly over 1-2 hours to monitor for any adverse reactions.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has Raynaud's disease. What intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Raynaud's disease is to provide information about stress management. Stress management techniques can help reduce the frequency and severity of Raynaud's episodes. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining a cool temperature can exacerbate symptoms in individuals with Raynaud's disease. Choice C is incorrect as epinephrine is not typically used for Raynaud's disease. Choice D is incorrect as glucocorticoid steroids are not the first-line treatment for Raynaud's disease.

3. A client receiving intermittent enteral feedings is being cared for by a nurse. Which action should the nurse take to reduce the risk of aspiration?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action to reduce the risk of aspiration during enteral feedings is to elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees. This position helps prevent the reflux of feeding into the lungs. Administering the feeding over 60 minutes (Choice A) does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Positioning the client in a supine position (Choice B) increases the risk of aspiration as it promotes reflux. Flushing the feeding tube with water (Choice D) is important for tube patency but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration.

4. A client with deep vein thrombosis receiving heparin therapy needs monitoring. Which test should the nurse use to regulate the medication dosage?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). aPTT is specifically used to monitor and regulate heparin therapy as it assesses the intrinsic pathway of coagulation, which heparin affects. Options A and B, Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR), are used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Option D, Fibrinogen levels, is not the primary test used to monitor heparin therapy.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical records of a client who has thrombocytopenia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the care plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to provide the client with a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, leading to decreased blood clotting ability. Providing a stool softener is essential to prevent constipation and straining during bowel movements, which can lead to bleeding in thrombocytopenic clients. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is a good oral hygiene practice but is not directly related to managing thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is important for immunocompromised clients to prevent exposure to pathogens but is not specifically related to thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (Choice D) is a precaution to reduce the risk of infection in immunocompromised clients but does not directly address the complications of thrombocytopenia.

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