a nurse is caring for a client who has a history of angina the client reports chest pain which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of angina. The client reports chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client with a history of angina reports chest pain is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin every 5 minutes. Nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart and relieving chest pain associated with angina. Aspirin is often given during a suspected heart attack, not for immediate relief of angina. Deep breathing exercises may be beneficial for anxiety or respiratory conditions but are not the first-line intervention for angina. Oxygen therapy is not the initial treatment for angina unless the client is hypoxic.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has right-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Peripheral edema. In right-sided heart failure, the heart struggles to pump blood efficiently, leading to fluid backup in the body. This fluid retention commonly manifests as peripheral edema, causing swelling in the legs, ankles, and feet. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Weight loss is not typically associated with right-sided heart failure; bradycardia (slow heart rate) is more commonly seen in conditions like hypothyroidism or athletes, not specifically in right-sided heart failure; and a dry cough is more commonly associated with conditions like pneumonia or bronchitis, not typically with right-sided heart failure.

3. A nurse is administering medications to a group of clients. Which of the following occurrences requires the completion of an incident report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. When a client receives antibiotics 2 hours late, it constitutes a medication error, requiring the completion of an incident report. Choice B, a client vomiting within 20 minutes of taking medications, does not necessarily require an incident report unless it is suspected to be related to a medication error. Choice C, a client requesting a statin at a specific time, and choice D, a client asking for pain medication an hour early, are not incidents that mandate the completion of an incident report unless there are specific circumstances indicating otherwise.

4. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient for infection post-surgery?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring the surgical site is crucial to identify early signs of infection post-surgery. Redness, swelling, warmth, or discharge at the surgical site can indicate an infection. While monitoring for fever (choice B) is important as fever can also be a sign of infection, it may not always present immediately post-surgery. Checking blood pressure (choice C) is essential for other purposes but not specifically for monitoring infection post-surgery. Checking for redness (choice D) is limited as redness alone may not always indicate an infection, so it is not as comprehensive as monitoring the surgical site.

5. A client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis should be placed in which type of room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients diagnosed with tuberculosis should be placed in a negative pressure room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens. Option A is incorrect because administering isoniazid is a treatment for tuberculosis, not a preventive measure related to infection control. Option B is incorrect as droplet isolation is used for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, not airborne pathogens like tuberculosis. Option C is incorrect as wearing a surgical mask is not sufficient to prevent the spread of tuberculosis in healthcare settings; placing the client in a negative pressure room is the most effective measure.

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