a nurse is caring for a client who has a history of angina the client reports chest pain which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of angina. The client reports chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client with a history of angina reports chest pain is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin every 5 minutes. Nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart and relieving chest pain associated with angina. Aspirin is often given during a suspected heart attack, not for immediate relief of angina. Deep breathing exercises may be beneficial for anxiety or respiratory conditions but are not the first-line intervention for angina. Oxygen therapy is not the initial treatment for angina unless the client is hypoxic.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated bilirubin level in clients with cirrhosis indicates worsening liver function and potential complications. It is crucial to report this finding promptly as it may require immediate medical intervention. Elevated ammonia levels (choice A) are also concerning in cirrhosis, indicating hepatic encephalopathy, but bilirubin levels are more specific to liver function in this context. Choices B and C are within normal ranges and are not typically of immediate concern in cirrhosis.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following medications should the nurse question?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which may lead to hyperkalemia in clients with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, its use should be questioned in this population. Choice A, Calcium carbonate, is commonly used to manage phosphate levels in chronic kidney disease. Choice B, Furosemide, is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but should be used with caution in kidney disease. Choice C, Epoetin alfa, is a medication used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease and anemia.

4. Which lab value is critical for patients on warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR levels for patients on warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is essential because it helps assess the clotting tendency of the blood and ensures that patients are within the therapeutic range to prevent both blood clots and excessive bleeding. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice B), sodium levels (Choice C), or platelet count (Choice D) is not specifically required for patients on warfarin therapy and does not directly impact the effectiveness or safety of the medication.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has been prescribed digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Check your pulse before taking this medication.' When a patient is prescribed digoxin, it is crucial to monitor their pulse rate because digoxin can cause bradycardia (slow heart rate) as a side effect. In contrast, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking digoxin with meals is not necessary; it should be taken consistently at the same time every day. Taking digoxin with an antacid is not recommended as it can interfere with the absorption of the medication. While digoxin can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels), patients should not increase their potassium intake without healthcare provider guidance to avoid potential complications.

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