ATI RN
Final Exam Pathophysiology
1. A patient is being educated about the use of raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?
- A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
- B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
- C. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
- D. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.' Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), works by decreasing bone resorption, which is the breakdown of bone, and increasing bone density. This action helps in preventing bone loss and maintaining bone strength. Choice A is incorrect because raloxifene does not stimulate the formation of new bone but rather prevents its breakdown. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium but rather helps in maintaining calcium levels in the bones. Choice D is also incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines.
2. A patient is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following is a common initial treatment strategy?
- A. Insulin therapy
- B. Lifestyle modification and metformin
- C. Sulfonylureas
- D. Thiazolidinediones
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lifestyle modification and metformin. When managing type 2 diabetes mellitus, initial treatment often involves lifestyle changes such as adopting a healthy diet and increasing physical activity, along with the oral medication metformin. Insulin therapy (choice A) is usually reserved for cases where lifestyle changes and oral medications are not sufficient to control blood sugar levels. Sulfonylureas (choice C) and thiazolidinediones (choice D) are also oral medications used in diabetes management, but they are not typically recommended as first-line treatments due to various side effects and considerations in type 2 diabetes management.
3. A 45-year-old client is admitted with new-onset status epilepticus. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Administer IV fluids and monitor electrolytes.
- B. Administer antiepileptic medications as prescribed.
- C. Ensure a patent airway and prepare for possible intubation.
- D. Monitor the client for signs of hypotension.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. In a client with new-onset status epilepticus, the priority nursing intervention is to ensure a patent airway and prepare for possible intubation. This is crucial to prevent hypoxia and further complications. Administering IV fluids and monitoring electrolytes (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Administering antiepileptic medications (choice B) is essential but only after securing the airway. Monitoring for hypotension (choice D) is also important but not the priority when managing status epilepticus.
4. How often should a patient be administered a tetanus toxoid?
- A. Every year
- B. Every 10 years
- C. Every 2 years
- D. Every 5 years
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tetanus toxoid should be administered every 10 years to ensure continued protection against tetanus infection. The correct answer is 'Every 10 years.' Choice A ('Every year') is incorrect as the frequency is too frequent. Choice C ('Every 2 years') is incorrect as it is too frequent for tetanus toxoid administration. Choice D ('Every 5 years') is incorrect as it does not align with the recommended interval for tetanus toxoid booster doses.
5. An older adult man has moved to a long-term care facility, and the nurse is performing medication reconciliation. The resident's current medication regimen includes alfuzosin (Uroxatral). After considering the most likely indication for this drug, what potential problem should the nurse include in the resident's interdisciplinary plan of care?
- A. Impaired urinary elimination
- B. Ineffective sexual pattern
- C. Sexual dysfunction
- D. Functional urinary incontinence
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Sexual dysfunction.' Alfuzosin is commonly prescribed for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), a condition that can lead to sexual dysfunction in older men. It is important to include this potential problem in the interdisciplinary plan of care to address the impact of the medication on the resident's sexual health. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while alfuzosin can affect urinary function, the primary concern related to this medication in this scenario is sexual dysfunction due to its indication for BPH.
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