Nursing Elites

1. The college health nurse is providing health education for freshmen. Which of the following pieces of information about immunizations is applicable to individuals of this age group?

• A. The oral polio vaccine should be updated.
• B. The yearly administration of flu vaccine is recommended.
• C. The tetanus toxoid should be within 2 years.
• D. The administration of hepatitis A vaccine is mandatory.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For freshmen in college, the yearly administration of the flu vaccine is recommended. This is important to protect against seasonal influenza outbreaks that can spread rapidly in close living quarters such as dormitories. Choice A is incorrect as oral polio vaccine is not typically given to individuals of this age group. Choice C is incorrect as tetanus toxoid boosters are usually recommended every 10 years, not within 2 years. Choice D is incorrect as the administration of the hepatitis A vaccine is not mandatory for all individuals in this age group.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with lung cancer who is experiencing dyspnea. Which intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Administer a cough suppressant to reduce discomfort.
• B. Encourage the client to lie flat to ease breathing.
• C. Provide supplemental oxygen therapy.
• D. Encourage deep breathing and coughing exercises.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a client with lung cancer experiencing dyspnea is to provide supplemental oxygen therapy. This intervention helps improve oxygenation and alleviate breathing difficulties. Administering a cough suppressant (Choice A) may not address the underlying cause of dyspnea and can potentially depress the respiratory drive. Encouraging the client to lie flat (Choice B) can worsen dyspnea by reducing lung expansion. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing exercises (Choice D) may be beneficial in some situations, but when a client is experiencing dyspnea due to lung cancer, supplemental oxygen therapy is the priority to improve oxygen levels and alleviate breathing difficulty.

3. What are direct effects of antibodies? (Select ONE that does not apply):

• A. Neutralization
• B. Agglutination
• C. Precipitation
• D. Phagocytosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The direct effects of antibodies include neutralization, agglutination, and precipitation. Antibodies neutralize pathogens by binding to them and preventing their harmful effects. Agglutination involves the clumping together of pathogens, making it easier for phagocytes to engulf them. Precipitation refers to the process where antibodies bind to soluble antigens, forming large complexes that are easily removed from the body. Phagocytosis, on the other hand, is an indirect effect of antibodies where phagocytes engulf and destroy pathogens opsonized by antibodies, not a direct effect.

4. A client presents to the emergency department with lower right quadrant abdominal pain, fever, nausea, and occasional diarrhea. After palpating the abdomen, the client displays tenderness. What would the nurse anticipate the client to be experiencing?

• A. Pseudomembranous colitis
• B. Peptic ulcer disease
• C. Appendicitis
• D. Esophageal cancer

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Appendicitis. The symptoms described - lower right quadrant abdominal pain, fever, nausea, diarrhea, and tenderness upon palpation - are classic signs of appendicitis. Appendicitis is an inflammatory condition of the appendix that often presents with these symptoms and requires immediate medical attention. Choice A, Pseudomembranous colitis, typically presents with watery diarrhea and is associated with antibiotic use. Choice B, Peptic ulcer disease, commonly presents with epigastric pain related to meals and can be accompanied by nausea or vomiting, but it does not typically cause right lower quadrant pain. Choice D, Esophageal cancer, usually presents with symptoms related to swallowing difficulties, weight loss, and sometimes chest pain, but it is not associated with the symptoms described in the scenario.

5. A client has been admitted to the hospital with symptoms of Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which aspect of the client's condition would require priority monitoring?

• A. Monitoring oxygen saturation levels
• B. Monitoring for signs of respiratory compromise
• C. Monitoring for changes in consciousness
• D. Monitoring blood pressure closely

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In Guillain-Barré syndrome, respiratory muscle weakness can lead to respiratory compromise, making it crucial to prioritize monitoring for signs of respiratory distress. Monitoring oxygen saturation levels is important but is secondary to assessing for respiratory compromise in this condition. Changes in consciousness and monitoring blood pressure closely are not typically the priority in Guillain-Barré syndrome.

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