Nursing Elites

1. A client is taking Digoxin and has a new prescription for Colesevelam. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take digoxin with your morning dose of colesevelam.
• B. Your sodium and potassium levels will be monitored periodically while taking colesevelam.
• C. Watch for bleeding or bruising while taking colesevelam.
• D. Take colesevelam with food and at least one glass of water.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When taking colesevelam, it should be administered with food and at least 8 oz of water to ensure proper absorption and reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Taking colesevelam with food also helps in binding to bile acids efficiently. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not provide the necessary instruction for taking colesevelam correctly or monitoring specific side effects associated with this medication.

2. A client has a new prescription for Loperamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Avoid activities that require alertness.
• C. Increase your intake of high-fiber foods.
• D. Expect your stools to be black and tarry.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Loperamide can cause drowsiness and dizziness, so clients should avoid activities that require alertness until they know how the medication affects them. Taking the medication with a full glass of water can help with absorption. Increasing intake of high-fiber foods is not directly related to Loperamide. Black, tarry stools are not expected side effects of this medication, so informing the client to expect this is incorrect.

3. A client is receiving treatment with capecitabine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for neutropenia when receiving capecitabine, as it is a common adverse effect caused by bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infection, making it essential for the nurse to closely monitor the client's white blood cell count and assess for signs of infection during treatment. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with capecitabine. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) and bradycardia (Choice D) are not commonly linked to capecitabine use. Therefore, monitoring for neutropenia is the priority in this scenario.

4. Which of the following is the antidote for lead poisoning?

• A. Naloxone
• B. Nitrite
• C. CaEDTA
• D. Dialysis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Calcium disodium ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (CaEDTA) is the antidote for lead poisoning. CaEDTA works by chelating lead, forming a complex that is then excreted in the urine. It is used in chelation therapy to treat lead poisoning by reducing lead levels in the body.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the provider monitor?

• A. Urinary retention
• B. Tachypnea
• C. Hypertension
• D. Irritating cough

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the awareness of bladder fullness, leading to urinary retention. This complication can result in significant discomfort and potential urinary tract issues if not promptly addressed. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate) is a common side effect of opioids but is not a specific complication related to urinary retention. Hypertension is not typically associated with opioid agonists and is more commonly seen with opioid antagonists. An irritating cough is not a known complication of opioid agonists and is not directly related to the effect opioids have on the urinary system.

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