ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024
1. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Lisinopril, which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Expect a persistent, dry cough.
- C. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. Take the medication at bedtime.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Expect a persistent, dry cough.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent, dry cough as a side effect. This should be reported to the healthcare provider if it becomes bothersome. It is essential for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect so the client is aware and can seek appropriate guidance if needed. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Lisinopril with food is not required. Increasing potassium-rich foods is not a specific instruction for Lisinopril, and taking the medication at bedtime is not a typical recommendation associated with this medication.
2. A client who is withdrawing from alcohol has been prescribed Propranolol. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Increases the risk for seizure activity.
- B. Provides a form of aversion therapy.
- C. Decreases cravings.
- D. Results in mild hypertension.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct information the nurse should include in the teaching is that Propranolol decreases cravings for alcohol. Propranolol is used as an adjunct medication during alcohol withdrawal to help reduce the desire for alcohol. Choice A is incorrect as Propranolol does not increase the risk for seizure activity; it can actually be used to prevent alcohol withdrawal seizures. Choice B is also incorrect as Propranolol does not provide aversion therapy. Choice D is incorrect as Propranolol is not known to result in mild hypertension.
3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who is prescribed Furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare provider monitor?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Serum calcium
- C. Serum sodium
- D. Serum magnesium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) due to increased potassium excretion in the urine. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, the healthcare provider should closely monitor the client's serum potassium levels when they are prescribed Furosemide. While monitoring other electrolytes like sodium and magnesium may also be important in certain situations, the priority for a client prescribed Furosemide is to monitor serum potassium levels due to the risk of hypokalemia.
4. Which of the following is not a side effect of the vasodilator Nifedipine?
- A. Nausea
- B. Flushed appearance
- C. Vertigo
- D. Sexual dysfunction
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Sexual dysfunction is not a common side effect of vasodilators such as Nifedipine. Nausea, flushed appearance, and vertigo are more commonly reported side effects associated with this medication. It's essential for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential side effects to monitor and manage them effectively in patients prescribed with Nifedipine.
5. A client is prescribed Spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse monitor and report to the provider?
- A. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
- B. Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L
- C. Chloride level of 100 mEq/L
- D. Calcium level of 9.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, causing potassium retention, potentially leading to elevated potassium levels. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is above the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L), indicating hyperkalemia, a serious condition. Elevated potassium levels can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring and reporting high potassium levels promptly to the healthcare provider are crucial to prevent potential complications. Sodium, chloride, and calcium levels are not directly influenced by Spironolactone, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.
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