ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare professional is educating a client who is beginning therapy with gemcitabine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional instruct the client to report?
- A. Dyspnea
- B. Constipation
- C. Tinnitus
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is dyspnea. Dyspnea can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a severe adverse effect associated with gemcitabine therapy. Prompt reporting of dyspnea allows for timely evaluation and management to prevent potential complications. Constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not typically associated with gemcitabine therapy and are less likely to be directly related to the medication. Therefore, they are not the priority findings that the client should report.
2. Reteplase (Retavase) has been ordered for a client diagnosed with an MI. The nurse understands that this drug needs to be administered within which time frame following the onset of symptoms?
- A. 45 minutes to 18 hours
- B. 30 minutes to 12 hours
- C. 90 minutes to 36 hours
- D. 60 minutes to 24 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Reteplase (Retavase) is a thrombolytic medication used in the treatment of myocardial infarction (MI). It is crucial to administer this drug within 30 minutes to 12 hours following the onset of symptoms to achieve optimal therapeutic effects and improve patient outcomes. Administering Reteplase within this time frame helps in restoring blood flow to the affected areas of the heart by dissolving blood clots, reducing myocardial damage, and potentially preventing further complications associated with MI.
3. A client with Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis is receiving Streptomycin IM among other antibiotics. For which of the following manifestations should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Extremity paresthesias
- B. Urinary retention
- C. Severe constipation
- D. Complex partial seizures
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is extremity paresthesias. Streptomycin, used to treat infections like Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis, can cause paresthesias in the hands and feet as an adverse effect. Monitoring for this symptom is vital to detect and manage it promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because urinary retention, severe constipation, and complex partial seizures are not commonly associated adverse effects of Streptomycin.
4. Which of the following conditions are not treated with opioid analgesics like dextromethorphan and methadone?
- A. Pulmonary Edema
- B. Cough suppression
- C. Sedation
- D. Pain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Opioid analgesics like dextromethorphan and methadone are primarily used for pain management and cough suppression. Sedation is not a primary indication for these medications.
5. When does regular insulin typically peak?
- A. 30 minutes to 2 ½ hours
- B. 1 to 3 hours
- C. 6 to 14 hours
- D. 1 to 5 hours
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Regular insulin usually peaks around 1 to 5 hours after administration. This peak time frame is important to consider when managing blood glucose levels and timing meals to coincide with insulin activity. Choice A, '30 minutes to 2 ½ hours,' is incorrect because regular insulin typically peaks later. Choice B, '1 to 3 hours,' is not the most accurate as the peak for regular insulin can extend beyond 3 hours. Choice C, '6 to 14 hours,' is incorrect as this timeframe is more indicative of long-acting insulins, not regular insulin.
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