Nursing Elites

1. When starting therapy with Atenolol, which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Atenolol, a beta-blocker, can lead to bradycardia as an adverse effect due to its mechanism of action. The nurse should advise the client to monitor their pulse regularly, as a significant decrease may indicate bradycardia, a condition characterized by a slow heart rate.

2. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch for Angina Pectoris. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Remove the patch each evening.
• B. Do not cut the patch in half even if angina attacks are under control.
• C. Take off the nitroglycerin patch if a headache occurs.
• D. Apply a new patch every 48 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction is to remove the nitroglycerin patch each evening to prevent tolerance. This allows for a 10- to 12-hour nitrate-free period daily, reducing the risk of developing tolerance to nitroglycerin. Cutting the patch in half is not recommended because it can alter the dosing and absorption rate, leading to inadequate symptom control. Taking off the patch for a headache is not necessary as headaches are a common side effect that may improve with continued use. Applying a new patch every 48 hours is not correct as it may not provide continuous symptom relief for angina.

3. A hospitalized client has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) greater than 1.5 times the expected reference range. Which of the following blood products should be prepared for transfusion?

• A. Whole blood
• B. Platelets
• C. Fresh frozen plasma
• D. Packed red blood cells

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fresh frozen plasma is the appropriate blood product for a client with an elevated aPTT as it contains various coagulation factors that can help correct coagulopathies and prevent bleeding. Elevated aPTT indicates a deficiency in specific clotting factors, and fresh frozen plasma is rich in these factors. Whole blood, platelets, and packed red blood cells do not contain the necessary coagulation factors to correct an elevated aPTT, so they are not indicated in this situation.

4. A client is starting therapy with doxorubicin. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Hair loss
• B. Fatigue
• C. Sore throat
• D. Red urine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Sore throat.' Doxorubicin is known to have immunosuppressive effects, which can predispose the client to infections. A sore throat can be an early sign of infection, and prompt reporting to the healthcare provider is crucial to initiate appropriate interventions and prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hair loss, fatigue, and red urine are common side effects of doxorubicin and are typically expected during therapy. While these side effects should be monitored, they do not require immediate reporting unless they become severe or concerning.

5. A client has a new prescription for alendronate to treat osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take the medication with food to reduce nausea.
• B. Take the medication first thing in the morning on an empty stomach.
• C. Take the medication with a full glass of milk.
• D. Take the medication with meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Alendronate should be taken first thing in the morning on an empty stomach to maximize absorption. Taking it with food, milk, or meals can reduce its effectiveness by impairing absorption. Therefore, advising the client to take it on an empty stomach is crucial for optimal therapeutic outcomes.

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