Nursing Elites

1. When starting therapy with Atenolol, which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Atenolol, a beta-blocker, can lead to bradycardia as an adverse effect due to its mechanism of action. The nurse should advise the client to monitor their pulse regularly, as a significant decrease may indicate bradycardia, a condition characterized by a slow heart rate.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Belimumab for a client with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?

• A. Warm the medication to room temperature before administering.
• B. Administer the medication by slow IV infusion over the recommended time frame.
• C. Dilute the medication in an appropriate solution as per manufacturer guidelines.
• D. Monitor the client for hypersensitivity reactions.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action the healthcare professional should plan to take when administering Belimumab is to monitor the client for hypersensitivity reactions. Belimumab is known to cause severe infusion reactions, including anaphylaxis in some cases. Monitoring for hypersensitivity reactions is crucial to detect and manage any adverse reactions promptly. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because warming the medication, administering by slow IV infusion, and dilution are not specific actions needed for Belimumab administration. The priority is to monitor the client for potential hypersensitivity reactions to ensure their safety.

3. Which of the following is not a side effect of loop diuretics?

• A. Alkalosis
• B. Nausea
• C. Hypotension
• D. Potassium deficits

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nausea is not commonly associated with loop diuretics. Loop diuretics are known to cause electrolyte imbalances such as potassium deficits, metabolic alkalosis, and hypotension due to excessive fluid loss. Nausea is not a typical side effect of loop diuretics.

4. A client with tobacco use disorder is being educated about Nicotine replacement therapy. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should avoid eating right before chewing a piece of nicotine gum.
• B. I will need to stop using the nicotine gum after 1 year.
• C. I know that nicotine gum is a safe alternative to smoking during pregnancy.
• D. I must chew the nicotine gum quickly for about 15 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. To maximize the effectiveness of nicotine gum, the client should avoid eating or drinking 15 minutes before and while using it. This helps ensure proper absorption of nicotine through the oral mucosa. Choice B is incorrect because the duration of nicotine gum use can vary depending on the individual's needs and progress. Choice C is incorrect as nicotine gum should be used during pregnancy only under healthcare provider guidance. Choice D is incorrect because nicotine gum should be chewed slowly until a tingling sensation is felt, then parked between the cheek and gum until the tingling stops.

5. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for a Fentanyl transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply the patch to a hairy area.
• B. Change the patch every 24 hours.
• C. Avoid exposure to heat sources.
• D. Cut the patch to adjust the dosage.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include when providing discharge instructions for a client with a Fentanyl transdermal patch is to avoid exposure to heat sources. Heat can increase the absorption of the medication, leading to a risk of overdose. Choice A is incorrect because the patch should be applied to a clean, non-hairy area. Choice B is incorrect as the Fentanyl patch is usually changed every 72 hours, not every 24 hours. Choice D is incorrect as the patch should never be cut to adjust the dosage.

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