ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology 2023
1. A client has a new prescription for Hydralazine. Which of the following side effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for and report?
- A. Orthostatic hypotension
- B. Increased heart rate
- C. Dark-colored urine
- D. Persistent cough
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Hydralazine, a vasodilator, can cause reflex tachycardia, leading to an increased heart rate. This side effect should be reported to the healthcare provider to ensure appropriate management and monitoring of the client's condition. Choice A (Orthostatic hypotension) is incorrect as Hydralazine is more likely to cause reflex tachycardia than orthostatic hypotension. Choice C (Dark-colored urine) and Choice D (Persistent cough) are unrelated to the common side effects of Hydralazine and should not be the focus of monitoring for this medication.
2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health care record of a client who is asking about conjugated equine estrogens. The provider should inform the client this medication is contraindicated in which of the following conditions?
- A. Atrophic vaginitis
- B. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
- C. Osteoporosis
- D. Thrombophlebitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Conjugated equine estrogens are contraindicated in clients with a history of thrombophlebitis due to the increased risk of thrombotic events associated with estrogen use. Thrombophlebitis is characterized by inflammation of a vein with the formation of a clot, and estrogen can further exacerbate this condition, leading to serious complications. Choices A, B, and C are not contraindications for conjugated equine estrogens. Atrophic vaginitis and osteoporosis are conditions where estrogen therapy may actually be indicated. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding is another condition where estrogen therapy can be used to help regulate menstrual bleeding.
3. A healthcare professional is caring for a group of clients receiving antimicrobial therapy. Which of the following clients should the professional plan to monitor for manifestations of antibiotic toxicity?
- A. An adolescent client with a sinus infection
- B. An older adult client with prostatitis
- C. A client who is postpartum with mastitis
- D. A middle-aged client with a urinary tract infection
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An older adult client with prostatitis who is receiving antibiotics should be monitored for toxicity due to age-related reductions in medication metabolism and excretion. Older adults are more susceptible to antibiotic toxicity, making them a high-risk group for adverse effects.
4. When instructing a client with a new prescription for Timolol on how to insert eye drops, which area should the nurse instruct the client to press on to prevent systemic absorption of the medication?
- A. Bony orbit
- B. Nasolacrimal duct
- C. Conjunctival sac
- D. Outer canthus
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pressing on the nasolacrimal duct, located near the inner corner of the eye, blocks the lacrimal punctum and prevents the medication from entering the systemic circulation. This technique helps to ensure the medication stays localized in the eye, enhancing its therapeutic effect while minimizing systemic side effects. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. The bony orbit is the eye socket and not a site to press for preventing systemic absorption. The conjunctival sac is where eye drops are instilled, not pressed on. The outer canthus is also not the correct area to press to prevent systemic absorption.
5. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Take this medication in the morning.
- B. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
- C. You should take this medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Limit your fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed furosemide is to take the medication in the morning. Furosemide, a diuretic, is best taken in the morning to prevent nocturia, which is excessive urination at night. Taking it earlier in the day can help reduce disruptions to sleep patterns. Therefore, advising the client to take furosemide in the morning is crucial for optimal therapeutic effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not require avoiding potassium-rich foods, does not need to be taken on an empty stomach, and does not mandate limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
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