a nurse is teaching a client who is at risk for iron deficiency anemia about optimizing her dietary intake of iron the nurse should explain that which
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1. A client at risk for iron-deficiency anemia is being taught by a nurse about optimizing dietary intake of iron. The nurse should explain that which of the following sources of iron is easiest for the body to absorb?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Chicken.' Chicken contains heme iron, which is more easily absorbed by the body compared to non-heme iron found in plant-based sources like spinach, cantaloupe, and lentils. Heme iron, as present in chicken, is more bioavailable and is better absorbed by the body, making it an excellent source of iron for individuals at risk of iron-deficiency anemia. Spinach, cantaloupe, and lentils contain non-heme iron, which is not as efficiently absorbed as heme iron.

2. What is the most significant dietary influence on the development of dental caries?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Carbohydrates. Carbohydrates, especially fermentable sugars, are the most significant dietary factor in the development of dental caries. When these sugars are consumed, they can be fermented by bacteria in the mouth, leading to the production of acids. These acids lower the pH in the mouth, creating an acidic environment that promotes demineralization of the tooth enamel, ultimately causing dental caries. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while vitamins and minerals are important for overall health, they do not have the same direct impact on the development of dental caries as fermentable carbohydrates do. Fats, on the other hand, do not play a significant role in the development of dental caries.

3. All of the following are seen in a child with measles. Which one is not?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Measles typically presents with symptoms like reddened eyes, coryza (inflammation of the mucous membrane in the nose), and cough. However, pustules are not a common symptom of measles. Pustules are more characteristic of conditions like chickenpox rather than measles. Understanding these distinctions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

4. Each of the following accurately describes aspects of the dietary reference intakes (DRIs) published by the Food and Nutrition Board of the Institute of Medicine (IOM) except one. Which one is the exception?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. DRIs do not specifically address individuals with disease states; they are intended for the general healthy population. Choice A is correct because DRIs indeed replace the older recommended daily allowances. Choice B is correct as current DRIs aim to estimate required nutrients to enhance long-term health. Choice D is accurate as DRIs also attempt to establish maximum safe levels of tolerance for nutrients.

5. Located in the middle of the brain, what organ is responsible for satiety and hunger?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The hypothalamus, located in the middle of the brain, plays a crucial role in regulating hunger and satiety. It contains specific regions that control appetite and feeding behavior. The Medulla Oblongata (Choice A) is responsible for regulating vital functions like heartbeat and breathing, not hunger. The Pituitary Gland (Choice B) is an endocrine gland that secretes hormones but is not primarily involved in hunger regulation. The Parathyroid (Choice D) is responsible for regulating calcium levels in the body and not related to hunger or satiety.

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