Nursing Elites

1. A client with tuberculosis is starting combination drug therapy. Which of the following medications should the nurse NOT plan to administer?

• A. Rifampin
• B. Isoniazid
• C. Acyclovir
• D. Pyrazinamide

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes virus infections, not tuberculosis. Rifampin, Isoniazid, and Pyrazinamide are all commonly used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Therefore, the nurse should not plan to administer Acyclovir to a client with tuberculosis.

2. A client is prescribed prednisone for asthma management. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will take this medication every day to prevent asthma attacks.
• B. I will avoid people with infections while taking this medication.
• C. I will take this medication with food to prevent stomach upset.
• D. I will stop taking this medication if I feel fine.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because prednisone, a corticosteroid, should not be abruptly stopped. It must be tapered off gradually to prevent adrenal insufficiency. Choices A, B, and C demonstrate proper understanding of the medication's use and side effects, emphasizing the importance of daily intake, infection prevention, and taking it with food to avoid stomach upset.

3. A client with end-stage heart failure who is awaiting a transplant appears depressed and states, 'I know a transplant is my last chance, but I don't want to become a vegetable.' How should the nurse respond?

• A. Would you like information about advance directives?
• B. I will arrange for a psychiatrist to speak with you.
• C. Do you want to come off the transplant list?
• D. Would you like to speak with a priest or chaplain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client is expressing a fear of negative outcomes related to the transplant. By offering information about advance directives, the nurse allows the client to discuss concerns and preferences for end-of-life care. This response shows empathy, acknowledges the client's autonomy, and addresses the client's fears while providing support and information.

4. A post-anesthesia care unit nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a thoracotomy and lobectomy. Which of the following postoperative assessments should the nurse give the highest priority to?

• A. Arterial blood gases
• B. Urinary output
• C. Chest tube drainage
• D. Pain level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Arterial blood gases are crucial to assess postoperatively in a client who has undergone thoracotomy and lobectomy to monitor oxygenation and ventilation status. Changes in arterial blood gases can indicate respiratory complications or inadequate gas exchange, which are critical issues that need prompt intervention to prevent further complications. While urinary output, chest tube drainage, and pain level are important assessments, monitoring arterial blood gases takes precedence in this specific postoperative scenario to ensure optimal respiratory function and overall patient well-being.

5. A client is unconscious with a breathing pattern characterized by alternating periods of hyperventilation and apnea. The nurse should document that the client has which of the following respiratory alterations?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Apneustic respirations
• C. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
• D. Stridor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. This pattern is often seen in clients with neurological or cardiac conditions. Kussmaul respirations are deep and rapid breaths often associated with metabolic acidosis. Apneustic respirations are characterized by prolonged inhalations with shortened exhalations and can indicate damage to the pons. Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy respiratory sound usually associated with upper airway obstruction. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's alternating pattern of hyperventilation and apnea aligns with Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

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