Nursing Elites

1. A client with tuberculosis is starting combination drug therapy. Which of the following medications should the nurse NOT plan to administer?

• A. Rifampin
• B. Isoniazid
• C. Acyclovir
• D. Pyrazinamide

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes virus infections, not tuberculosis. Rifampin, Isoniazid, and Pyrazinamide are all commonly used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Therefore, the nurse should not plan to administer Acyclovir to a client with tuberculosis.

2. When performing tracheostomy care, which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Use aseptic technique.
• B. Clean the inner cannula with mild soap and water.
• C. Secure new tracheostomy ties before removing old ones.
• D. Apply suction when inserting the catheter.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When caring for a client with a tracheostomy, it is essential to ensure that the airway is maintained and secured at all times. Securing new tracheostomy ties before removing the old ones helps prevent accidental decannulation and ensures continuous airway patency. Aseptic technique is crucial to prevent infections but is not directly related to securing the tracheostomy ties. Cleaning the inner cannula with mild soap and water is important for maintaining hygiene but does not address the immediate need for securing the airway. Applying suction when inserting the catheter is not a standard practice during tracheostomy care.

3. A client has burns to his face, ears, and eyelids. What is the priority finding for the nurse to report to the provider?

• A. Urinary output of 25 mL/hr
• B. Difficulty swallowing
• C. Heart rate of 122/min
• D. Pain level of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client has burns involving the face, ears, and eyelids, the priority finding to report to the provider is difficulty swallowing. This symptom could indicate potential airway compromise or swelling in the throat, which can lead to serious complications. Monitoring and addressing this issue promptly is crucial to ensure the client's airway remains patent and secure.

4. A nursing student learns about modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Which factors does this include? (SATA)

• A. Age
• B. Hypertension
• C. Obesity
• D. Smoking

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypertension, obesity, smoking, and excessive stress are all modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Age is a nonmodifiable risk factor as it is a natural process of life.

5. A nurse manager wishes to ensure that the nurses on the unit are practicing at their highest levels of competency. Which areas should the manager assess to determine if the nursing staff demonstrate competency according to the Institute of Medicine (IOM) report Health Professions Education: A Bridge to Quality? (Select ONE that does not apply)

• A. Collaborating with an interdisciplinary team
• B. Implementing evidence-based care
• C. Providing family-focused care
• D. Experimenting on patients

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The Institute of Medicine (IOM) report 'Health Professions Education: A Bridge to Quality' outlines five core competencies that healthcare providers should possess. These competencies include collaborating with an interdisciplinary team, implementing evidence-based care, providing family-focused care, using informatics in practice, and focusing on patient-centered care. Therefore, to ensure that nurses are practicing at their highest levels of competency as per the IOM report, the nurse manager should assess all of these areas.

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