Nursing Elites

1. A client with tuberculosis is starting combination drug therapy. Which of the following medications should the nurse NOT plan to administer?

• A. Rifampin
• B. Isoniazid
• C. Acyclovir
• D. Pyrazinamide

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes virus infections, not tuberculosis. Rifampin, Isoniazid, and Pyrazinamide are all commonly used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Therefore, the nurse should not plan to administer Acyclovir to a client with tuberculosis.

2. A client has developed atelectasis postoperatively. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Facial flushing
• B. Increasing dyspnea
• C. Decreasing respiratory rate
• D. Friction rub

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atelectasis is a condition where the alveoli in the lungs collapse, leading to impaired gas exchange. As a result, the client may experience increasing dyspnea (difficulty breathing) due to the decreased lung capacity for oxygen exchange. Facial flushing, decreasing respiratory rate, and friction rub are not typically associated with atelectasis.

3. During an acute asthma attack in a client with asthma, what medication should the nurse administer first?

• A. Oral corticosteroids
• B. Short-acting beta agonist
• C. Leukotriene receptor antagonist
• D. Long-acting beta agonist

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During an acute asthma attack, the priority is to quickly relieve bronchospasm and improve breathing. Short-acting beta agonists, like albuterol, are the first-line medications as they rapidly relax bronchial muscles, providing immediate relief. Oral corticosteroids are used as adjunct therapy to reduce airway inflammation over time, while leukotriene receptor antagonists and long-acting beta agonists are not appropriate for immediate relief during an acute attack.

4. A client is admitted with a pulmonary embolism (PE). The client is young, healthy, and active, and has no known risk factors for PE. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Encourage the client to walk for 5 minutes each hour.
• B. Refer the client for smoking cessation classes.
• C. Teach the client about factor V Leiden testing.
• D. Explain to the client that sometimes no cause for the disease is found.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to teach the client about factor V Leiden testing. Factor V Leiden is an inherited thrombophilia that can lead to abnormal clotting events, including pulmonary embolism (PE). In a case where a client has no known risk factors for PE, testing for this genetic disorder is crucial to determine if it is a contributing factor. Encouraging the client to walk or referring them to smoking cessation classes, while beneficial for overall health, are not directly relevant to the development of a PE in this specific case. While it is true that sometimes no cause for a disease is found, prematurely assuming this without appropriate investigations may lead to missed opportunities for preventive measures or treatments.

5. A client interested in smoking cessation is being taught by a nurse. Which statements should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select one that does not apply)

• A. Find an activity that you enjoy and will keep your hands busy.
• B. Keep snacks like potato chips on hand to nibble on.
• C. Drink at least eight glasses of water each day.
• D. Make a list of reasons for quitting smoking.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When teaching a client interested in smoking cessation, the nurse should advise finding an activity that keeps the hands busy, keeping healthy snacks on hand, making a list of reasons for quitting smoking, and not being upset if a relapse occurs. Drinking eight glasses of water each day is a healthy habit but is not directly related to smoking cessation strategies, making it the option that does not apply in this context.

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