ATI RN
Adult Medical Surgical ATI
1. A client was exposed to anthrax. Which of the following antibiotics should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. Ciprofloxacin
- B. Fluconazole
- C. Tobramycin
- D. Vancomycin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the case of anthrax exposure, the recommended antibiotic for prophylaxis and treatment is Ciprofloxacin. Ciprofloxacin is effective against the anthrax bacterium, Bacillus anthracis. Fluconazole is an antifungal medication, Tobramycin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic used for bacterial infections, and Vancomycin is a glycopeptide antibiotic primarily used for Gram-positive bacterial infections. Therefore, the correct choice is Ciprofloxacin.
2. A client with a chest tube connected to a closed drainage system needs to be transported to the x-ray department. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Clamp the chest tube prior to transferring the client to a wheelchair.
- B. Disconnect the chest tube from the drainage system during transport.
- C. Keep the drainage system below the level of the client's chest at all times.
- D. Empty the collection chamber prior to transport.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When transporting a client with a chest tube connected to a closed drainage system, it is crucial to keep the drainage system below the level of the client's chest at all times. This positioning prevents the backflow of drainage into the client's chest, reducing the risk of complications. Clamping the chest tube, disconnecting it from the drainage system, or emptying the collection chamber are incorrect actions and can potentially harm the client or lead to complications.
3. A client who will undergo a bronchoscopy procedure with a rigid scope and general anesthesia will have their neck in which of the following positions?
- A. A flexed position
- B. An extended position
- C. A neutral position
- D. A hyperextended position
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a bronchoscopy with a rigid scope and general anesthesia, the provider will typically place the client's neck in a hyperextended position to allow better visualization and access to the airways. This position helps to align the trachea for easier insertion of the scope.
4. A client is 1 day postoperative following a lobectomy with a chest tube drainage system in place. Which finding by the nurse indicates a need for intervention?
- A. Chest tube eyelets not visible
- B. Continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber
- C. Presence of tidal fluctuation in the water seal chamber
- D. Development of subcutaneous emphysema
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The development of subcutaneous emphysema is a concerning finding that requires immediate intervention. Subcutaneous emphysema results from air leaking into the tissues, which can lead to respiratory compromise. It is important to address this issue promptly to prevent further complications. The other options are normal or expected findings in a chest tube drainage system. Chest tube eyelets not being visible may indicate dislodgement, continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber indicates proper functioning, and the presence of tidal fluctuation in the water seal chamber demonstrates appropriate drainage and lung re-expansion.
5. A client is on intravenous heparin to treat a pulmonary embolism. The client's most recent partial thromboplastin time (PTT) was 25 seconds. What action should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Decrease the heparin rate.
- B. Increase the heparin rate.
- C. No change to the heparin rate.
- D. Stop the heparin; start warfarin (Coumadin).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: For clients on heparin therapy, a PTT value of 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal range is required to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation. The normal PTT range is 25 to 35 seconds. In this case, the client's PTT of 25 seconds falls below the therapeutic range, indicating that the heparin dose is insufficient. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate increasing the heparin rate to achieve the desired therapeutic effect.
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