Nursing Elites

1. A client was exposed to anthrax. Which of the following antibiotics should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Ciprofloxacin
• B. Fluconazole
• C. Tobramycin
• D. Vancomycin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the case of anthrax exposure, the recommended antibiotic for prophylaxis and treatment is Ciprofloxacin. Ciprofloxacin is effective against the anthrax bacterium, Bacillus anthracis. Fluconazole is an antifungal medication, Tobramycin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic used for bacterial infections, and Vancomycin is a glycopeptide antibiotic primarily used for Gram-positive bacterial infections. Therefore, the correct choice is Ciprofloxacin.

2. A nurse manager wishes to ensure that the nurses on the unit are practicing at their highest levels of competency. Which areas should the manager assess to determine if the nursing staff demonstrate competency according to the Institute of Medicine (IOM) report Health Professions Education: A Bridge to Quality? (Select ONE that does not apply)

• A. Collaborating with an interdisciplinary team
• B. Implementing evidence-based care
• C. Providing family-focused care
• D. Experimenting on patients

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The Institute of Medicine (IOM) report 'Health Professions Education: A Bridge to Quality' outlines five core competencies that healthcare providers should possess. These competencies include collaborating with an interdisciplinary team, implementing evidence-based care, providing family-focused care, using informatics in practice, and focusing on patient-centered care. Therefore, to ensure that nurses are practicing at their highest levels of competency as per the IOM report, the nurse manager should assess all of these areas.

3. A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client. Which of the following findings is not a manifestation of pulmonary tuberculosis?

• A. Night sweats
• B. Low-grade fever
• C. Weight gain
• D. Blood in the sputum

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

4. A client with asthma has developed viral pharyngitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Petechiae on the chest and abdomen
• B. WBC 16,000/mm3
• C. Negative throat culture
• D. Severe hyperemia of pharyngeal mucosa

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Viral pharyngitis is typically caused by a virus, not bacteria, so a negative throat culture is an expected finding. The presence of petechiae on the chest and abdomen (Choice A) is not a common manifestation of viral pharyngitis. Elevated WBC count (Choice B) is more indicative of a bacterial infection rather than a viral one. Severe hyperemia of the pharyngeal mucosa (Choice D) is a possible finding in pharyngitis but is not specific to viral pharyngitis.

5. A client in the emergency department is being cared for by a nurse and has cardiogenic pulmonary edema. The client's assessment findings include anxiousness, dyspnea at rest, crackles, blood pressure 110/79 mm Hg, and apical heart rate 112/min. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Provide the client with supplemental oxygen at 5 L/min via facemask.
• B. Place the client in high-Fowler's position with their legs in a dependent position
• C. Give the client sublingual nitroglycerin
• D. Administer morphine sulfate IV

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cardiogenic pulmonary edema, the priority intervention is to improve oxygenation and reduce the workload on the heart. Providing supplemental oxygen at 5 L/min via facemask helps increase oxygen levels and alleviate respiratory distress. This intervention can help improve oxygen saturation, alleviate dyspnea, and support the client's respiratory function. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position with legs dependent can also help with respiratory effort, but ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence. Sublingual nitroglycerin and IV morphine sulfate are commonly used interventions for cardiac-related conditions, but in this case, addressing oxygenation is the priority to prevent further deterioration.

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