a nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who has extensive partial and full thickness burns of the head neck and chest while planni
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Detailed Answer Key Medical Surgical

1. While caring for a client with extensive partial and full-thickness burns of the head, neck, and chest, which risk should the nurse prioritize for assessment and intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client sustains burns to the head, neck, or chest, the risk of airway obstruction is a critical concern due to potential swelling, inflammation, or inhalation injury. Any compromise to the airway can lead to severe respiratory distress or failure. Early recognition and intervention to maintain a clear airway are essential to prevent life-threatening complications in burn patients.

2. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is receiving hemodialysis. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is critically high and can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias, requiring immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia is a common complication in clients with ESRD due to the kidneys' inability to excrete potassium effectively. High potassium levels can result in serious cardiac consequences such as arrhythmias, cardiac arrest, and death. Prompt action is necessary to prevent these severe complications.

3. A client is receiving discharge teaching after a total hip replacement. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After a total hip replacement, clients should avoid bending at the waist past 90 degrees for at least 6 weeks to prevent dislocation of the hip prosthesis. Bending down to tie shoes involves significant hip flexion and should be avoided during the initial postoperative period to ensure proper healing and reduce the risk of complications.

4. What comfort measure may the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) for a client receiving O2 at 4 liters per nasal cannula?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is receiving oxygen at a high flow rate, it can cause drying of the nasal passages and lips. Therefore, a comfort measure that can be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is applying water-soluble ointment to the client's nares and lips. Adjusting the oxygen flow rate should be done by licensed nursing staff, not UAP. Removing the tubing can disrupt the oxygen delivery and should be performed by trained personnel. Turning the client every 2 hours is a general comfort measure but is not specific to addressing the drying effects of oxygen therapy.

5. A client in the emergency department is being cared for by a nurse and has cardiogenic pulmonary edema. The client's assessment findings include anxiousness, dyspnea at rest, crackles, blood pressure 110/79 mm Hg, and apical heart rate 112/min. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cardiogenic pulmonary edema, the priority intervention is to improve oxygenation and reduce the workload on the heart. Providing supplemental oxygen at 5 L/min via facemask helps increase oxygen levels and alleviate respiratory distress. This intervention can help improve oxygen saturation, alleviate dyspnea, and support the client's respiratory function. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position with legs dependent can also help with respiratory effort, but ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence. Sublingual nitroglycerin and IV morphine sulfate are commonly used interventions for cardiac-related conditions, but in this case, addressing oxygenation is the priority to prevent further deterioration.

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