Nursing Elites

1. While caring for a client with extensive partial and full-thickness burns of the head, neck, and chest, which risk should the nurse prioritize for assessment and intervention?

• A. Airway obstruction
• B. Infection
• C. Fluid imbalance
• D. Paralytic ileus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client sustains burns to the head, neck, or chest, the risk of airway obstruction is a critical concern due to potential swelling, inflammation, or inhalation injury. Any compromise to the airway can lead to severe respiratory distress or failure. Early recognition and intervention to maintain a clear airway are essential to prevent life-threatening complications in burn patients.

2. During an assessment in the emergency department, an older adult client with community-acquired pneumonia is found to be confused. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Unequal pupils
• B. Hypertension
• C. Tympany upon chest percussion
• D. Confusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Confusion is a common finding in older adult clients with pneumonia, often indicating hypoxia. Hypertension, unequal pupils, and tympany upon chest percussion are not typically associated with community-acquired pneumonia in older adults.

3. A client just had a flexible bronchoscopy. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate?

• A. Withhold food and liquids until the client's gag reflex returns.
• B. Irrigate the client's throat every 4 hours.
• C. Have the client refrain from talking for 24 hours.
• D. Suction the client's oropharynx frequently.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a flexible bronchoscopy, it is crucial to withhold food and liquids until the client's gag reflex returns to prevent aspiration. Irrigating the client's throat every 4 hours, having the client refrain from talking for 24 hours, and frequent suctioning of the oropharynx are not indicated post-bronchoscopy and may even pose risks to the client's recovery.

4. While caring for a client using O2 in the hospital, what assessment finding indicates that goals for a priority diagnosis are being met?

• A. 100% of meals being eaten by the client
• B. Intact skin behind the ears
• C. The client understanding the need for oxygen
• D. Unchanged weight for the past 3 days

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is using oxygen, there is a risk for impaired skin integrity due to pressure from tubing. Intact skin behind the ears suggests that the client is not experiencing skin breakdown, meeting the goals for this diagnosis. The client's nutrition, understanding of oxygen therapy, and weight stability are important but do not directly relate to the priority diagnosis of skin integrity in this context.

5. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client following a thoracentesis. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following manifestations as a complication and contact the provider immediately?

• A. Serosanguineous drainage from the puncture site
• B. Discomfort at the puncture site
• C. Increased heart rate
• D. Decreased temperature

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Following a thoracentesis, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to monitor for potential complications. Increased heart rate can indicate hypovolemia or other serious issues, such as bleeding or pneumothorax, and requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Serosanguineous drainage from the puncture site is a common expected finding post-procedure. Discomfort at the puncture site is also common and can be managed with appropriate interventions. Decreased temperature is not typically associated with complications following a thoracentesis. Therefore, the correct answer is increased heart rate as it signifies a potential serious complication that needs prompt medical evaluation.

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