ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology
1. When teaching a client with schizophrenia strategies to cope with anticholinergic effects of Fluphenazine, which of the following should the nurse suggest to minimize anticholinergic effects?
- A. Take the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia.
- B. Chew sugarless gum to moisten the mouth.
- C. Use cooling measures to decrease fever.
- D. Take an antacid to relieve nausea.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Chew sugarless gum to moisten the mouth.' Chewing sugarless gum can help alleviate dry mouth, which is a common anticholinergic effect of Fluphenazine. Dry mouth can be uncomfortable and affect the client's oral health. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address anticholinergic effects. Taking the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia (Option A) is unrelated to anticholinergic effects. Using cooling measures to decrease fever (Option C) is not a common anticholinergic effect of Fluphenazine. Taking an antacid to relieve nausea (Option D) does not specifically target anticholinergic effects.
2. What is the antidote for Heparin?
- A. Atropine
- B. Protamine sulfate
- C. Calcium carbonate
- D. Ferrous sulfate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the specific antidote used to reverse the effects of Heparin by binding to heparin and neutralizing its anticoagulant properties. It is crucial to administer Protamine sulfate promptly in cases of Heparin overdose or when immediate reversal of Heparin's effects is required to prevent bleeding complications. Atropine is not the antidote for Heparin; it is commonly used for treating bradycardia. Calcium carbonate is used to treat conditions like acid indigestion, heartburn, or calcium deficiency. Ferrous sulfate is a form of iron supplement used to treat or prevent iron deficiency anemia. None of these alternatives are antidotes for Heparin.
3. A client has a new prescription for Buspirone to treat Anxiety. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Expect optimal therapeutic effects within 24 hours.
- C. Take this medication as needed for anxiety.
- D. This medication has a low risk for dependency.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When educating a client about Buspirone, the nurse should highlight that this medication has a low risk for physical or psychological dependence or tolerance. This information is crucial for the client to understand the safety profile of Buspirone compared to other medications used for anxiety.
4. A client with Angina Pectoris asks the nurse about the next step if one tablet does not relieve Anginal pain after waiting 5 minutes. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. Take two more sublingual tablets simultaneously.
- B. Call emergency services.
- C. Take a sustained-release nitroglycerin capsule.
- D. Wait another 5 minutes before taking a second sublingual tablet.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a situation where Anginal pain persists after taking one sublingual tablet and waiting 5 minutes, it is crucial to call emergency services (911) immediately. This could indicate a myocardial infarction (heart attack) rather than a typical Anginal attack. The client should not take two more sublingual tablets simultaneously without seeking immediate medical help as this could delay appropriate intervention if the pain is due to a heart attack. Taking a sustained-release nitroglycerin capsule is not recommended for immediate relief of acute Anginal pain as it works too slowly. Waiting another 5 minutes before taking a second sublingual tablet is not appropriate if the pain persists, as prompt action is essential in suspected heart-related issues.
5. When reviewing a client's health record, a healthcare professional notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should be identified as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?
- A. Captopril
- B. Lisinopril
- C. Furosemide
- D. Spironolactone
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to hypokalemia by increasing the excretion of potassium in the urine. This potassium loss can result in lower-than-normal levels of potassium in the body, leading to hypokalemia.
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