a nurse is teaching a client who has schizophrenia strategies to cope with anticholinergic effects of fluphenazine which of the following should the n
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Pharmacology

1. When teaching a client with schizophrenia strategies to cope with anticholinergic effects of Fluphenazine, which of the following should the nurse suggest to minimize anticholinergic effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Chew sugarless gum to moisten the mouth.' Chewing sugarless gum can help alleviate dry mouth, which is a common anticholinergic effect of Fluphenazine. Dry mouth can be uncomfortable and affect the client's oral health. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address anticholinergic effects. Taking the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia (Option A) is unrelated to anticholinergic effects. Using cooling measures to decrease fever (Option C) is not a common anticholinergic effect of Fluphenazine. Taking an antacid to relieve nausea (Option D) does not specifically target anticholinergic effects.

2. A client has a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach in the morning to enhance its absorption. This timing allows for optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication. Taking it with food, at bedtime, or with an antacid may interfere with its absorption and reduce its efficacy.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer dextrose 5% in water (D5W) 750 mL IV to infuse over 6 hr. How many mL/hr should the IV pump be set to deliver?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate, divide the total volume by the total time: 750 mL / 6 hr = 125 mL/hr. Therefore, the IV pump should be set to deliver 125 mL/hr to infuse D5W 750 mL over 6 hours. Choice B (100 mL/hr) is incorrect because it does not accurately divide the total volume by the total time. Choice C (150 mL/hr) and Choice D (200 mL/hr) are incorrect as they are not the correct flow rates needed to infuse the D5W solution over the specified time period.

4. A client prescribed Isosorbide Mononitrate for chronic stable Angina develops reflex tachycardia. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-adrenergic blocker, is commonly used to treat hypertension and stable angina pectoris. It is often prescribed to decrease heart rate in clients who develop tachycardia, such as in the case of reflex tachycardia induced by Isosorbide Mononitrate, making it the appropriate choice in this scenario. Furosemide (Choice A) is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure and edema, not for reflex tachycardia. Captopril (Choice B) is an ACE inhibitor primarily used for hypertension and heart failure, not for reflex tachycardia. Ranolazine (Choice C) is used for chronic angina but does not specifically address reflex tachycardia.

5. A client is prescribed Ciprofloxacin and seeks guidance from a nurse. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid taking this medication with dairy products.' Ciprofloxacin should not be taken with dairy products due to the interference of calcium with medication absorption. Taking Ciprofloxacin 1 hour before or 2 hours after consuming dairy products ensures optimal effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because Ciprofloxacin is usually taken on an empty stomach or with a light meal, not necessarily with heavy meals. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific instruction to take Ciprofloxacin at bedtime. Choice D is incorrect because there is no need to increase potassium-rich foods intake specifically related to Ciprofloxacin use.

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