a nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin via continuous iv infusion which of the following results indicates that
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Pharmacology Test Bank

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin via continuous IV infusion. Which of the following results indicates that the heparin infusion should be increased?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is above the therapeutic range for heparin, which typically falls between 60-80 seconds. This indicates that the current heparin dose is too high, and the infusion rate should be decreased to avoid excessive anticoagulation and the risk of bleeding. Monitoring aPTT is crucial in adjusting heparin therapy to maintain it within the therapeutic range.

2. When educating a client who has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide, which of the following statements should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement to include when educating a client with a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide is that they may need to increase their intake of potassium. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that can lead to potassium loss. Monitoring potassium levels and increasing potassium intake if necessary can help prevent complications associated with hypokalemia. Option A is not directly related to the medication's specific instructions. Option C is incorrect as Hydrochlorothiazide typically does not cause drowsiness. Option D is unrelated, as there is no interaction between Hydrochlorothiazide and grapefruit.

3. A client has been taking Phenylephrine nasal drops for the past 10 days for Sinusitis. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nasal congestion. After more than 5 days of use, nasal sympathomimetic medications like phenylephrine can lead to rebound nasal congestion. This occurs due to prolonged vasoconstriction of nasal blood vessels, causing worsening nasal congestion. Sedation (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of phenylephrine nasal drops. Productive cough (choice C) and constipation (choice D) are also not typical adverse effects associated with this medication.

4. A client is receiving moderate sedation with Diazepam IV and is oversedated. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine antagonist that competitively reverses the sedative effects of benzodiazepines like Diazepam. In cases of oversedation or respiratory depression caused by benzodiazepines, administering Flumazenil can help reverse the effects and restore the client's consciousness and respiratory drive. Ketamine (Choice A) is a dissociative anesthetic and not used to reverse benzodiazepine sedation. Naltrexone (Choice B) is an opioid receptor antagonist and not indicated for benzodiazepine oversedation. Fluvoxamine (Choice D) is an antidepressant and not used to counteract benzodiazepine sedation.

5. A client in a long-term care facility has Hypothyroidism and a new prescription for Levothyroxine. Which of the following dosage schedules should the nurse expect for this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should expect that levothyroxine will be started at a low dose and gradually increased over several weeks. This cautious approach is crucial, especially in older adult clients, to prevent toxicity and ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes for managing hypothyroidism. Choice A is incorrect because starting at a high dose and tapering as needed is not the standard approach for levothyroxine. Choice B is incorrect because the initial dosage is typically adjusted to reach the optimal therapeutic dose. Choice C is incorrect as adjusting the dosage daily based on blood levels is not necessary for levothyroxine, as it has a long half-life and requires time to reach a steady state.

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