Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin via continuous IV infusion. Which of the following results indicates that the heparin infusion should be increased?

• A. aPTT of 90 seconds
• B. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³
• C. INR of 1.0
• D. Hgb of 15 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is above the therapeutic range for heparin, which typically falls between 60-80 seconds. This indicates that the current heparin dose is too high, and the infusion rate should be decreased to avoid excessive anticoagulation and the risk of bleeding. Monitoring aPTT is crucial in adjusting heparin therapy to maintain it within the therapeutic range.

2. A client has a new prescription for Raltegravir. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching the client?

• A. This medication prevents the virus from entering the cell.
• B. This medication prevents the virus from leaving the cell.
• C. This medication blocks the virus from attaching to the cell.
• D. This medication blocks the virus from replicating in the cell.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because Raltegravir works by blocking the integrase enzyme, preventing the virus from integrating its genetic material into the host cell's DNA. By inhibiting this process, viral replication within the host cell is halted. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Raltegravir's mechanism of action specifically targets viral replication within the cell, not virus entry, exit, or attachment to the cell.

3. When caring for a client prescribed Digoxin, which finding should the nurse monitor to assess for potential toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of Digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a cardiac glycoside, can lead to toxic effects such as bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client's heart rate for any significant decreases, as this could indicate Digoxin toxicity and prompt further intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Digoxin toxicity typically presents with bradycardia, not hypertension, hypoglycemia, or hypercalcemia.

4. A client with a new prescription for Escitalopram for the treatment of generalized anxiety disorder is being taught by a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should take the medication on an empty stomach.
• B. I will follow a low-sodium diet while taking this medication.
• C. I need to discontinue this medication slowly.
• D. I should not crush this medication before swallowing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When discontinuing escitalopram, the client should taper the medication slowly according to a prescribed tapered dosing schedule to reduce the risk of withdrawal syndrome. This gradual reduction helps minimize potential withdrawal symptoms and ensures a safer discontinuation process. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking escitalopram on an empty stomach, following a low-sodium diet, and not crushing the medication are not directly related to the safe and effective use of the medication or its discontinuation process.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Weight gain
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common adverse effect of Clonidine. Clonidine can cause a reduction in salivary flow, leading to dry mouth. This symptom can be managed by increasing fluid intake or using sugar-free gum or candy to stimulate saliva production. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While drowsiness and insomnia are potential side effects of Clonidine, dry mouth is more commonly reported. Weight gain is not typically associated with Clonidine use.

Similar Questions