ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A client with OCD has a new prescription for Paroxetine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. It can take several weeks before you feel like the medication is helping.
- B. Take the medication just before bedtime to promote sleep.
- C. You should take the medication when needed for obsessive urges.
- D. Monitor for weight gain while taking this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include when teaching a client with OCD who has a new prescription for Paroxetine is that it can take several weeks before the client feels like the medication is helping. Paroxetine, like other selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), can take 1 to 4 weeks before the client reaches the full therapeutic benefit. Therefore, it is important to inform the client about this delay in onset of action to manage their expectations and promote adherence to the treatment plan. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking Paroxetine before bedtime is not necessary, it should be taken consistently at the same time each day; Paroxetine is usually taken regularly, not as needed; and while monitoring weight is important, it is not a specific instruction related to the onset of action for Paroxetine.
2. A client has a new prescription for atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for as an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Bradycardia.' Atenolol, a beta-blocker, commonly causes bradycardia as an adverse effect. It works by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to a decreased heart rate known as bradycardia. Monitoring for signs of bradycardia is essential to prevent any potential complications while on atenolol. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because atenolol is not known to cause tachycardia, hypoglycemia, or hypertension as common adverse effects.
3. What is the classification of Ondansetron?
- A. Antihypertensive
- B. Antiarrhythmic
- C. Antiemetic
- D. Antiulcer agent
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ondansetron is classified as an antiemetic. It is commonly used to prevent nausea and vomiting, especially in patients undergoing chemotherapy or surgery. Choice A, Antihypertensive, is incorrect as Ondansetron is not used to treat high blood pressure. Choice B, Antiarrhythmic, is incorrect as Ondansetron is not used to manage heart rhythm abnormalities. Choice D, Antiulcer agent, is incorrect as Ondansetron is not primarily indicated for treating ulcers.
4. A client is starting therapy with cisplatin. The healthcare provider should instruct the client to report which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Tinnitus
- B. Nausea
- C. Constipation
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is tinnitus. Cisplatin can cause ototoxicity, which may manifest as tinnitus. Tinnitus should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further hearing damage.
5. A client is prescribed Diltiazem. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can cause bradycardia as an adverse effect due to its negative chronotropic properties, slowing down the heart rate. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bradycardia by regularly assessing the heart rate to prevent potential complications. Monitoring for tachycardia (choice A) is incorrect as diltiazem typically does not cause tachycardia. Hypertension (choice C) is not a typical finding to monitor for with diltiazem use. Hyperkalemia (choice D) is not directly associated with diltiazem administration.
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