ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client with Graves' disease is being taught about her prescribed medications. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the use of Propranolol in the treatment of Graves' disease?
- A. Propranolol helps increase blood flow to my thyroid gland.
- B. Propranolol is used to prevent excess glucose in my blood.
- C. Propranolol will decrease my tremors and fast heart rate.
- D. Propranolol promotes a decrease in thyroid hormone in my body.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol is a beta-adrenergic antagonist that helps decrease heart rate and control tremors in individuals with Graves' disease. It does not increase blood flow to the thyroid gland (choice A), prevent excess glucose in the blood (choice B), or directly decrease thyroid hormone levels in the body (choice D). Propranolol's primary role in Graves' disease is to alleviate symptoms like tremors and fast heart rate by blocking the effects of excessive thyroid hormone, rather than reducing the actual levels of thyroid hormone in the body.
2. A client has a new prescription for Diltiazem. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. This medication may cause dry mouth.
- B. You should avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
- C. You may experience a rapid heart rate.
- D. Increase your intake of fiber-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement to include when teaching a client about Diltiazem is to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice can increase the levels of diltiazem in the blood, leading to potential toxicity and increased side effects. It is important for the client to be aware of this interaction to ensure the safe and effective use of the medication. Option A is incorrect because dry mouth is not a common side effect of Diltiazem. Option C is incorrect because Diltiazem is actually used to treat rapid heart rates. Option D is unrelated to the medication and not relevant to the teaching.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Enoxaparin to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Administer the medication orally.
- B. Massage the injection site after administration.
- C. Insert the needle at a 45- to 90-degree angle.
- D. Aspirate before injecting the medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Enoxaparin should be administered subcutaneously at a 45- to 90-degree angle. This angle ensures proper delivery of the medication. Massaging the injection site should be avoided to prevent bruising and possible tissue damage. Aspiration is not required for subcutaneous injections like Enoxaparin. Therefore, the correct action for administering Enoxaparin is to insert the needle at a 45- to 90-degree angle.
4. A client is taking Digoxin and has a new prescription for Colesevelam. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Take digoxin with your morning dose of colesevelam.
- B. Your sodium and potassium levels will be monitored periodically while taking colesevelam.
- C. Watch for bleeding or bruising while taking colesevelam.
- D. Take colesevelam with food and at least one glass of water.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When taking colesevelam, it should be administered with food and at least 8 oz of water to ensure proper absorption and reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Taking colesevelam with food also helps in binding to bile acids efficiently. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not provide the necessary instruction for taking colesevelam correctly or monitoring specific side effects associated with this medication.
5. Why should the nitrate patch be off for 8 hours per day?
- A. “There is no reason to take the patch off each day.”
- B. “The patch can be addictive; leaving it off reduces the addiction.”
- C. “You should only leave the patch off for 15 minutes.”
- D. “Leaving the patch off for 8 hours per day helps to delay the development of tolerance.”
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Removing the nitrate patch for 8 hours each day is essential to prevent the body from developing tolerance to the medication. By allowing the body to have a drug-free period, the effectiveness of the medication is maintained over time. This practice helps in ensuring that the nitrate patch continues to provide its intended therapeutic effects without diminishing its efficacy. Therefore, it is important for the client to adhere to the prescribed schedule of removing the patch for 8 hours daily to optimize the treatment outcomes.
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