Nursing Elites

1. A client with Graves' disease is being taught about her prescribed medications. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the use of Propranolol in the treatment of Graves' disease?

• A. Propranolol helps increase blood flow to my thyroid gland.
• B. Propranolol is used to prevent excess glucose in my blood.
• C. Propranolol will decrease my tremors and fast heart rate.
• D. Propranolol promotes a decrease in thyroid hormone in my body.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol is a beta-adrenergic antagonist that helps decrease heart rate and control tremors in individuals with Graves' disease. It does not increase blood flow to the thyroid gland (choice A), prevent excess glucose in the blood (choice B), or directly decrease thyroid hormone levels in the body (choice D). Propranolol's primary role in Graves' disease is to alleviate symptoms like tremors and fast heart rate by blocking the effects of excessive thyroid hormone, rather than reducing the actual levels of thyroid hormone in the body.

2. In an acute mental health facility, a patient experiencing opioid withdrawal has a new prescription for Clonidine. What action should the nurse identify as the priority?

• A. Administer the Clonidine as prescribed.
• B. Provide ice chips to the patient.
• C. Educate the patient on Clonidine's effects.
• D. Obtain baseline vital signs.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to obtain baseline vital signs. This is essential for establishing a baseline assessment, especially for a patient undergoing opioid withdrawal and starting a new medication like Clonidine. Monitoring vital signs is crucial for evaluating the patient's response to treatment and detecting any potential complications early on. Administering the medication, providing ice chips, and educating the patient on Clonidine's effects are important tasks but obtaining baseline vital signs takes precedence to ensure the patient's safety and proper management.

3. A client has a new prescription for Cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12) injections. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will need to take this medication for the rest of my life.
• B. I will stop taking the medication when my symptoms improve.
• C. I should take this medication with food.
• D. I will need to avoid green, leafy vegetables while taking this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with pernicious anemia or other causes of vitamin B12 deficiency may need to take cyanocobalamin for life to prevent deficiency. It is a lifelong treatment in many cases to maintain adequate B12 levels. Choice B is incorrect because stopping the medication when symptoms improve may lead to a relapse of the deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as cyanocobalamin injections are usually administered on an empty stomach. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to avoid green, leafy vegetables while taking cyanocobalamin; in fact, these vegetables are good dietary sources of vitamin B12.

4. A client with active tuberculosis asks why he must take four different medications. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. Taking four medications decreases the risk of a severe allergic reaction.
• B. Taking four medications reduces the chance that the bacteria will become resistant.
• C. Taking four medications reduces the risk of adverse reactions.
• D. Taking four medications decreases the chance of having a positive tuberculin skin test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When treating tuberculosis, using a combination of multiple medications is crucial to reduce the risk of bacterial resistance. The use of four medications helps to target the bacteria from different angles, making it harder for them to develop resistance to the treatment. This approach is essential to ensure the effectiveness of the treatment regimen and to prevent the spread of drug-resistant strains of tuberculosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary reason for using multiple medications in tuberculosis treatment is to prevent the development of bacterial resistance, not to decrease the risk of allergic reactions, adverse reactions, or affecting the tuberculin skin test results.

5. A client has an infection and a prescription for gentamicin intermittent IV bolus every 8 hr. A peak and trough is required with the next dose. Which of the following actions should be taken to obtain an accurate gentamicin serum level?

• A. Draw a trough level immediately prior to administering the medication and a peak level 30 min after the dose.
• B. Draw a peak level 90 min prior to administering the medication and a trough level 90 min after the dose.
• C. Draw a trough level immediately prior to administering the medication and a peak level 30 min after the dose.
• D. Draw a peak level at 0900 and a trough level at 2100.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To obtain an accurate gentamicin serum level, the trough should be drawn immediately before administering the medication, and the peak level should be drawn 30 minutes after the dose. This timing allows for the assessment of the lowest and highest drug concentrations in the bloodstream, ensuring therapeutic levels are achieved while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Choice A is correct as it follows this timing protocol. Choices B and D have incorrect timing for peak and trough levels, which would not provide an accurate representation of the drug's concentration in the bloodstream.

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