a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving imatini which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A client is receiving imatinib. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Edema. The nurse should monitor the client for edema when receiving imatinib. Imatinib, a tyrosine kinase inhibitor, can lead to fluid retention and edema as a common adverse effect. This can manifest as swelling in various parts of the body, indicating the need for close monitoring by the nurse to prevent complications related to fluid overload. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, dry mouth, and urinary retention are not typically associated with imatinib use. Therefore, they are not the priority adverse effects to monitor in a client receiving this medication.

2. A client has a new prescription for metronidazole. The client should avoid which of the following?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Alcohol. Clients should avoid alcohol while taking metronidazole to prevent a disulfiram-like reaction, which can cause symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, headache, and flushing. Alcohol can interact with metronidazole and lead to adverse effects. Choices A, C, and D are not typically contraindicated with metronidazole. Dairy products, leafy green vegetables, and grapefruit juice do not have significant interactions with metronidazole, unlike alcohol.

3. A client in an acute mental health facility is experiencing withdrawal from Opioid use and has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following actions should the nurse identify as the priority?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to obtain baseline vital signs. This step is crucial in assessing the client's current physiological status and establishing a reference point for monitoring the effects of Clonidine. Administering the medication, providing ice chips, and educating the client are important tasks but assessing the client's vital signs takes precedence to ensure the client's safety and well-being during withdrawal management.

4. A hospitalized client receiving IV heparin for a deep-vein thrombosis begins vomiting blood. After the heparin has been stopped, which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing a serious complication of heparin therapy, likely due to heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Protamine is the antidote for heparin and can reverse its anticoagulant effects. It is essential to administer protamine promptly to counteract the effects of heparin and manage the bleeding. Vitamin K1 is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Atropine is used to treat bradycardia or some types of poisoning. Calcium gluconate is used to manage hyperkalemia or calcium channel blocker toxicity, not to reverse heparin's effects.

5. A client has a new prescription for Prednisone and is receiving discharge instructions. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to increase the intake of potassium-rich foods. Prednisone can lead to potassium depletion; therefore, it is essential for clients to consume foods high in potassium such as bananas, oranges, and spinach to counteract this effect and maintain electrolyte balance. Choice B is incorrect because increasing dairy products is not directly related to the side effects of Prednisone. Choice C is incorrect because avoiding foods high in vitamin K is more relevant for clients on anticoagulants. Choice D is incorrect because decreasing protein intake is not a typical dietary instruction for clients prescribed Prednisone.

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