Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving imatinib. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Edema
• B. Constipation
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Urinary retention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Edema. The nurse should monitor the client for edema when receiving imatinib. Imatinib, a tyrosine kinase inhibitor, can lead to fluid retention and edema as a common adverse effect. This can manifest as swelling in various parts of the body, indicating the need for close monitoring by the nurse to prevent complications related to fluid overload. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, dry mouth, and urinary retention are not typically associated with imatinib use. Therefore, they are not the priority adverse effects to monitor in a client receiving this medication.

2. What is the pharmacological action of metformin?

• A. Blocks stimulation of beta1 and beta2.
• B. Blocks vasoconstriction and aldosterone.
• C. Acts at many levels in the CNS to produce an anxiolytic effect.
• D. Decreases hepatic glucose production.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreases hepatic glucose production. Metformin's primary pharmacological action is to decrease hepatic glucose production, leading to lower blood sugar levels and improved insulin sensitivity in the liver. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because metformin does not block stimulation of beta1 and beta2 receptors, vasoconstriction, aldosterone, or act in the CNS to produce an anxiolytic effect. Therefore, these options are not reflective of metformin's mechanism of action.

3. When starting therapy with Atenolol, which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Atenolol, a beta-blocker, can lead to bradycardia as an adverse effect due to its mechanism of action. The nurse should advise the client to monitor their pulse regularly, as a significant decrease may indicate bradycardia, a condition characterized by a slow heart rate.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is taking Digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Bruising
• B. Report of metallic taste
• C. Muscle pain
• D. Report of anorexia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct manifestation of digoxin toxicity is the report of anorexia. Anorexia, blurred vision, stomach pain, and diarrhea are common signs of digoxin toxicity. Bruising, metallic taste, and muscle pain are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Patients should promptly report symptoms of toxicity to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.

5. A client receiving chemotherapy with Methotrexate asks why Leucovorin is being given. Which of the following responses should the nurse use?

• A. Leucovorin reduces the risk of a transfusion reaction from Methotrexate.
• B. Leucovorin increases platelet production and prevents bleeding.
• C. Leucovorin potentiates the cytotoxic effects of Methotrexate.
• D. Leucovorin protects healthy cells from Methotrexate's toxic effects.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Leucovorin, a folic acid derivative and an antagonist to Methotrexate, is given within 12 hours of high doses of Methotrexate to protect healthy cells from the toxic effects of Methotrexate. It helps to reduce the bone marrow suppression and gastrointestinal side effects caused by Methotrexate, supporting the client's overall well-being during chemotherapy treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Leucovorin does not reduce the risk of a transfusion reaction from Methotrexate, increase platelet production, prevent bleeding, or potentiate the cytotoxic effects of Methotrexate. Instead, Leucovorin works by rescuing healthy cells from the toxic effects of Methotrexate.

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