a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving imatini which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A client is receiving imatinib. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Edema. The nurse should monitor the client for edema when receiving imatinib. Imatinib, a tyrosine kinase inhibitor, can lead to fluid retention and edema as a common adverse effect. This can manifest as swelling in various parts of the body, indicating the need for close monitoring by the nurse to prevent complications related to fluid overload. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, dry mouth, and urinary retention are not typically associated with imatinib use. Therefore, they are not the priority adverse effects to monitor in a client receiving this medication.

2. A client has been prescribed Methotrexate to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Methotrexate is hepatotoxic, and avoiding alcohol is crucial to prevent liver damage. However, Option A (Take this medication with food to prevent nausea) could also be correct, as Methotrexate commonly causes nausea, and taking it with food can help alleviate this side effect. However, the most important instruction is to avoid alcohol due to the risk of liver toxicity.

3. A client has a new prescription for atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for as an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Bradycardia.' Atenolol, a beta-blocker, commonly causes bradycardia as an adverse effect. It works by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to a decreased heart rate known as bradycardia. Monitoring for signs of bradycardia is essential to prevent any potential complications while on atenolol. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because atenolol is not known to cause tachycardia, hypoglycemia, or hypertension as common adverse effects.

4. How can the nurse best explain the difference between angina and a myocardial infarction to a client presenting with severe chest pain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When educating a client about the differences between angina and a myocardial infarction, it is crucial to emphasize key distinguishing factors. Angina typically improves with rest and is not usually life-threatening, whereas a myocardial infarction requires urgent intervention as it can be life-threatening. This explanation helps the client understand the urgency and severity associated with a myocardial infarction compared to angina.

5. When teaching parents of a school-age child about transdermal Methylphenidate, which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering transdermal Methylphenidate, the patch should be left on for 9 hours per day to ensure optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication. This duration helps maintain a consistent level of the drug in the child's system. Incorrect options: A) Applying one patch once per day is not the correct dosing regimen for transdermal Methylphenidate. C) The patch should not be applied to the child's waistline as it is recommended to apply it to a clean, dry area. D) Using the opened tray within 6 months is not directly related to the administration of transdermal Methylphenidate.

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