ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024
1. A client with chronic kidney disease has a new prescription for epoetin alfa. The nurse should instruct the client to increase dietary intake of which of the following substances?
- A. Iron
- B. Protein
- C. Potassium
- D. Sodium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patients with chronic kidney disease are often prescribed epoetin alfa to treat anemia. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, increasing the body's demand for iron to support this process. Therefore, clients taking epoetin alfa should be advised to increase their dietary intake of iron-rich foods to meet the increased demand and prevent iron deficiency anemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while protein is essential for overall health, potassium and sodium intake may need to be restricted in clients with chronic kidney disease to manage electrolyte balance and blood pressure.
2. A client has a new prescription for clonidine to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Discontinue the medication if a rash develops.
- B. Expect increased salivation during the first few weeks of therapy.
- C. Avoid driving until the client's reaction to the medication is known.
- D. Stop the medication if you experience a dry mouth.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting clonidine therapy for hypertension is to avoid driving until their reaction to the medication is known. Clonidine can cause drowsiness, so engaging in activities like driving that require alertness should be avoided until the individual understands how the medication affects them. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific side effect of drowsiness associated with clonidine that could impair driving abilities. Discontinuing the medication if a rash develops, expecting increased salivation, or stopping the medication for dry mouth are not primary concerns related to clonidine therapy for hypertension.
3. Which of the following is not a common effect of Midazolam?
- A. Amnesia
- B. Decreased respiratory function
- C. Anesthetic
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Midazolam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for its sedative, anxiolytic, and amnestic effects. While dizziness can be a side effect of Midazolam, it is not a primary or common effect. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as it deviates from the typical effects associated with Midazolam.
4. A nurse is providing instructions to a client who has a prescription for Amoxicillin and Clarithromycin to treat a Peptic Ulcer. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Take these medications with foo '
- B. These medications can turn your stool black.'
- C. These medications can cause photosensitivity.'
- D. The purpose of these medications is to decrease the pH of gastric juices in the stomach.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to take these medications with food to reduce GI disturbances.
5. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Nifedipine?
- A. Angina
- B. Arrhythmias
- C. Hypertension
- D. Fluid retention
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker primarily used in the management of angina and hypertension. It is not typically used to treat arrhythmias or fluid retention. Angina is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart, and hypertension is high blood pressure. Therefore, fluid retention is the condition that is not treated with Nifedipine.
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