ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024
1. A client with chronic kidney disease has a new prescription for epoetin alfa. The nurse should instruct the client to increase dietary intake of which of the following substances?
- A. Iron
- B. Protein
- C. Potassium
- D. Sodium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patients with chronic kidney disease are often prescribed epoetin alfa to treat anemia. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, increasing the body's demand for iron to support this process. Therefore, clients taking epoetin alfa should be advised to increase their dietary intake of iron-rich foods to meet the increased demand and prevent iron deficiency anemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while protein is essential for overall health, potassium and sodium intake may need to be restricted in clients with chronic kidney disease to manage electrolyte balance and blood pressure.
2. Which of the following conditions are not treated with opioid analgesics like dextromethorphan and methadone?
- A. Pulmonary Edema
- B. Cough suppression
- C. Sedation
- D. Pain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Opioid analgesics like dextromethorphan and methadone are primarily used for pain management and cough suppression. Sedation is not a primary indication for these medications.
3. A client is receiving imatinib. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Edema
- B. Constipation
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Urinary retention
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Edema. The nurse should monitor the client for edema when receiving imatinib. Imatinib, a tyrosine kinase inhibitor, can lead to fluid retention and edema as a common adverse effect. This can manifest as swelling in various parts of the body, indicating the need for close monitoring by the nurse to prevent complications related to fluid overload. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, dry mouth, and urinary retention are not typically associated with imatinib use. Therefore, they are not the priority adverse effects to monitor in a client receiving this medication.
4. What is the antidote for Heparin?
- A. Protamine sulfate
- B. Vitamin K
- C. Naloxone
- D. Toradol
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Protamine sulfate. Heparin is an anticoagulant that prevents blood clotting. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for Heparin as it binds to heparin, neutralizing its anticoagulant effects. Vitamin K is not the antidote for Heparin; it is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, another anticoagulant. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist for opioids, and Toradol is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) for pain relief. Therefore, the correct antidote for Heparin is Protamine sulfate.
5. A client has a new prescription for Ondansetron for nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication one hour before chemotherapy.
- B. You may experience a headache while taking this medication.
- C. Increase your intake of potassium while taking this medication.
- D. This medication may cause temporary hearing loss.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include is that the client may experience a headache while taking Ondansetron. Headache is a common side effect of this medication, and clients need to be informed about this potential adverse reaction to enhance their understanding and management of side effects. The other statements are incorrect because Ondansetron is usually taken 30 minutes before chemotherapy, not one hour before (choice A). There is no specific need to increase potassium intake while taking Ondansetron (choice C), and temporary hearing loss is not a common side effect associated with this medication (choice D).
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