ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Grilled chicken.
- B. Fresh fruit.
- C. White bread.
- D. Cheddar cheese.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cheddar cheese is high in phosphorus, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease. Fresh fruit is generally a healthy choice unless the client needs to limit potassium intake. Grilled chicken is a good protein source for clients with chronic kidney disease. White bread is low in phosphorus and can be included in the diet of clients with kidney disease unless they need to watch their carbohydrate intake.
2. A client with osteoporosis should be encouraged to perform which of the following interventions as part of the plan of care?
- A. Encourage the client to increase calcium intake.
- B. Apply heat to the affected joints to reduce stiffness.
- C. Encourage weight-bearing exercises to prevent bone loss.
- D. Limit fluid intake to prevent swelling.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage weight-bearing exercises to prevent bone loss in clients with osteoporosis. Weight-bearing exercises help to strengthen bones and reduce the risk of fractures. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is important for bone health but is not the priority intervention for preventing bone loss in osteoporosis. Applying heat to affected joints (Choice B) may help with stiffness but does not address the underlying bone loss in osteoporosis. Limiting fluid intake (Choice D) is not relevant to managing osteoporosis and preventing bone loss.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Contractions lasting 80 seconds.
- B. FHR baseline 170/min.
- C. Early decelerations in the FHR.
- D. Temperature 37.4°C (99.3°F).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. An FHR baseline of 170/min is considered tachycardia, which is above the normal range during labor and requires immediate attention. High FHR can indicate fetal distress or maternal fever. Choice A, contractions lasting 80 seconds, are within normal range for active labor. Choice C, early decelerations in the FHR, are usually benign and do not typically require immediate intervention. Choice D, a temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), is within normal limits.
4. A nurse is preparing to perform postmortem care for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Place the client's dentures in a labeled container
- B. Remove the client's IV lines
- C. Place the client's body in a semi-fowler's position
- D. Lower the client's head of the bed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to perform postmortem care is to remove the client's IV lines. This step is essential to help maintain the dignity and appearance of the body. Placing the client's dentures in a labeled container (Choice A) is not a priority during postmortem care as the focus is on the body's preparation. While positioning the body in a semi-fowler's position (Choice C) or lowering the client's head of the bed (Choice D) are common practices for living clients to prevent aspiration, they are not necessary after death. Therefore, the immediate action of removing IV lines is most appropriate in this situation.
5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the history of a client who is requesting combination oral contraceptives. Which condition in the client's history is a contraindication?
- A. Hyperthyroidism.
- B. Thrombophlebitis.
- C. Diverticulosis.
- D. Hypocalcemia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Thrombophlebitis is a contraindication for the use of combination oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of thromboembolic events such as deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism. Hyperthyroidism, diverticulosis, and hypocalcemia are not typically contraindications for using combination oral contraceptives, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.
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