Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Grilled chicken.
• B. Fresh fruit.
• C. White bread.
• D. Cheddar cheese.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cheddar cheese is high in phosphorus, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease. Fresh fruit is generally a healthy choice unless the client needs to limit potassium intake. Grilled chicken is a good protein source for clients with chronic kidney disease. White bread is low in phosphorus and can be included in the diet of clients with kidney disease unless they need to watch their carbohydrate intake.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is 24 hours postoperative following an open cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Urinary output of 100 mL in 4 hours
• B. Serosanguineous wound drainage
• C. Heart rate of 94/min
• D. WBC count of 15,000/mm³

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A WBC count of 15,000/mm³ is elevated and may indicate infection, which should be reported. High WBC count is a sign of inflammation or infection, and in a postoperative client, it can be indicative of surgical site infection or another complication. Urinary output, serosanguineous wound drainage, and a heart rate of 94/min are all within normal ranges for a client post cholecystectomy and do not raise immediate concerns for infection or complications.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg
• B. Respiratory rate of 16/min
• C. 1+ protein in the urine
• D. Heart rate of 88/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. 1+ protein in the urine is indicative of worsening preeclampsia and should be reported to the provider immediately. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is expected in preeclampsia, but a reading of 120/80 mm Hg is within the normal range. A respiratory rate of 16/min (choice B) and a heart rate of 88/min (choice D) are also within normal limits and not indicative of worsening preeclampsia.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased bilirubin levels
• B. Decreased prothrombin time
• C. Decreased albumin levels
• D. Increased prothrombin time

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, the liver is unable to produce clotting factors efficiently, leading to impaired clotting function. Therefore, an increased prothrombin time is expected in cirrhosis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Decreased bilirubin levels are not typically seen in cirrhosis; prothrombin time is usually increased, not decreased; and albumin levels are often decreased in cirrhosis due to reduced synthetic liver function.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the urine, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide and requires close monitoring. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, or hypercalcemia as frequently as it causes hypokalemia.

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