ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Grilled chicken.
- B. Fresh fruit.
- C. White bread.
- D. Cheddar cheese.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cheddar cheese is high in phosphorus, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease. Fresh fruit is generally a healthy choice unless the client needs to limit potassium intake. Grilled chicken is a good protein source for clients with chronic kidney disease. White bread is low in phosphorus and can be included in the diet of clients with kidney disease unless they need to watch their carbohydrate intake.
2. When teaching a client about nutritional intake, what should be included?
- A. Carbohydrates should be at least 45% of your caloric intake.
- B. Protein should be at least 55% of your caloric intake.
- C. Carbohydrates should be at least 30% of your caloric intake.
- D. Protein should be at least 60% of your caloric intake.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When educating a client about nutritional intake, it is important to mention that carbohydrates should constitute at least 45% of their daily caloric intake for a balanced diet. This macronutrient provides energy and is essential for proper bodily functions. Choice B is incorrect because protein should typically account for around 10-35% of total caloric intake, not 55%. Choice C is too low for the recommended carbohydrate intake, as it should be higher at 45%. Choice D is incorrect as protein intake should generally be around 10-35% of total caloric intake, not 60%.
3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is experiencing preterm contractions and dehydration. Which statement should the nurse make?
- A. Dehydration is treated with calcium supplements.
- B. Dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor.
- C. Dehydration is caused by decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit.
- D. Dehydration causes gastroesophageal reflux.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement is B: 'Dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor.' Dehydration can lead to increased uterine irritability, potentially causing preterm contractions and labor. Choice A is incorrect as dehydration is not treated with calcium supplements but rather with fluids. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration is not caused by decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels but rather by a lack of fluids. Choice D is incorrect as dehydration does not directly cause gastroesophageal reflux.
4. A client with asthma asks how to use a peak flow meter. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. Use the peak flow meter at the same time each day.
- B. Take a slow, deep breath and blow out as hard as you can.
- C. Keep a log of your peak flow readings.
- D. Perform the test before using any bronchodilators.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to perform the peak flow test before using any bronchodilators. This is important because it provides the most accurate baseline measurement of lung function. Choice A is not necessarily crucial for the accuracy of the test. Choice B describes the technique for spirometry, not peak flow meter use. Choice C, while important for tracking trends, is not directly related to the accuracy of the initial measurement.
5. What is the first intervention when a patient has difficulty breathing post-surgery?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Reposition the patient
- C. Check oxygen saturation
- D. Elevate the head of the bed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the initial intervention for a patient experiencing breathing difficulties post-surgery. Providing oxygen helps improve oxygenation and alleviate respiratory distress. Repositioning the patient, checking oxygen saturation, and elevating the head of the bed are important interventions but administering oxygen takes precedence in addressing hypoxia and respiratory compromise.
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