Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Grilled chicken.
• B. Fresh fruit.
• C. White bread.
• D. Cheddar cheese.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cheddar cheese is high in phosphorus, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease. Fresh fruit is generally a healthy choice unless the client needs to limit potassium intake. Grilled chicken is a good protein source for clients with chronic kidney disease. White bread is low in phosphorus and can be included in the diet of clients with kidney disease unless they need to watch their carbohydrate intake.

2. A client is prescribed furosemide and needs to consume potassium-rich foods. Which of the following foods should the client be advised to include in the diet?

• A. Grapes.
• B. Apples.
• C. Bananas.
• D. Rice.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bananas. Bananas are rich in potassium and should be included in the diet of clients taking furosemide, a potassium-wasting diuretic. Grapes, apples, and rice are not as high in potassium as bananas and would not be as effective in replenishing potassium levels in clients taking furosemide.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for furosemide. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following electrolyte imbalances?

• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Hypomagnesemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium loss leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial as low potassium can result in various complications like cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hypernatremia is high sodium levels, which are not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypercalcemia is elevated calcium levels and hypomagnesemia is low magnesium levels, which are not the primary electrolyte imbalances associated with furosemide.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. You should avoid eating foods high in potassium.
• C. You should take this medication with meals to improve absorption.
• D. Take this medication before bed to prevent drowsiness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed metformin is to take the medication with meals to improve absorption and reduce gastrointestinal upset. Metformin is typically recommended to be taken with food to minimize side effects. Option A is incorrect as taking metformin on an empty stomach may increase the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Option B is unrelated as metformin does not interact with potassium-rich foods. Option D is also incorrect as metformin does not cause drowsiness, so there is no need to take it before bed.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. aPTT
• C. INR
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: aPTT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is monitored to assess the therapeutic effect of heparin and to adjust the infusion rate if needed. Monitoring hemoglobin levels (choice A) is important for assessing anemia but is not specific to heparin therapy. INR (choice C) is used to monitor the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Platelet count (choice D) is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but aPTT is the primary laboratory value used to monitor heparin therapy.

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