a nurse is teaching a client who has chronic kidney disease about dietary modifications which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the cli
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cheddar cheese is high in phosphorus, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease. Fresh fruit is generally a healthy choice unless the client needs to limit potassium intake. Grilled chicken is a good protein source for clients with chronic kidney disease. White bread is low in phosphorus and can be included in the diet of clients with kidney disease unless they need to watch their carbohydrate intake.

2. A nurse is administering medications to a group of clients. Which of the following occurrences requires the completion of an incident report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. When a client receives antibiotics 2 hours late, it constitutes a medication error, requiring the completion of an incident report. Choice B, a client vomiting within 20 minutes of taking medications, does not necessarily require an incident report unless it is suspected to be related to a medication error. Choice C, a client requesting a statin at a specific time, and choice D, a client asking for pain medication an hour early, are not incidents that mandate the completion of an incident report unless there are specific circumstances indicating otherwise.

3. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer anticoagulants. Administering anticoagulants is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with suspected DVT because it helps prevent further clot formation and complications. Applying compression stockings (choice B) can be a preventive measure but is not the primary intervention for treating DVT. Encouraging ambulation (choice C) is beneficial for preventing DVT but is not the immediate intervention for a suspected case. Monitoring oxygen saturation (choice D) is important for assessing respiratory function but is not the primary intervention for DVT treatment.

4. A client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis should be placed in which type of room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients diagnosed with tuberculosis should be placed in a negative pressure room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens. Option A is incorrect because administering isoniazid is a treatment for tuberculosis, not a preventive measure related to infection control. Option B is incorrect as droplet isolation is used for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, not airborne pathogens like tuberculosis. Option C is incorrect as wearing a surgical mask is not sufficient to prevent the spread of tuberculosis in healthcare settings; placing the client in a negative pressure room is the most effective measure.

5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to advise the client to avoid consuming foods high in vitamin K. Foods rich in vitamin K, such as leafy greens, can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. Therefore, it is important for clients on warfarin therapy to maintain consistent vitamin K intake to keep their INR levels stable. The other options are also important but not the priority in the context of warfarin therapy. Ingesting foods high in vitamin K can affect the medication's efficacy, making it crucial to highlight this dietary consideration during client education.

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