a nurse is teaching a client who has chronic kidney disease about dietary modifications which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the cli
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cheddar cheese is high in phosphorus, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease. Fresh fruit is generally a healthy choice unless the client needs to limit potassium intake. Grilled chicken is a good protein source for clients with chronic kidney disease. White bread is low in phosphorus and can be included in the diet of clients with kidney disease unless they need to watch their carbohydrate intake.

2. When preparing education materials for a client, what technique should be used to make the information accessible?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to use a 7th-grade reading level. This technique ensures that the information provided is accessible and easily understandable for most clients. Using simple language helps to avoid confusion and ensures that the message is conveyed clearly. Emphasizing important information using bold lettering (Choice A) can be helpful but may not improve overall accessibility. Avoiding cartoons in the material (Choice C) is not directly related to making information accessible. Using words with three or four syllables (Choice D) can complicate the material and hinder understanding, making it less accessible.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving packed RBCs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to infuse the blood within 4 hours. This is crucial to prevent bacterial contamination and hemolysis during blood transfusions. Monitoring the client's blood glucose level every hour (Choice A) is not directly related to packed RBC transfusions. Administering the blood using a microdrip set (Choice B) may be appropriate for specific medications but is not a requirement for packed RBC transfusions. Assessing the client's vital signs every 2 hours (Choice C) is important for monitoring the client's overall condition but is not as time-sensitive as ensuring the timely infusion of packed RBCs.

4. What is the initial action a healthcare provider should take when a patient presents with chest pain?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct initial action when a patient presents with chest pain is to obtain an ECG. This helps assess the heart's electrical activity and determine the cause of chest pain. Administering aspirin or oxygen therapy may be necessary later based on the ECG findings, but obtaining an ECG is the priority to evaluate the cardiac status. Surgery preparation is not the initial action for chest pain and should only be considered after a thorough assessment.

5. What is the best way to manage a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer anticoagulants. Administering anticoagulants is crucial in managing patients with suspected DVT as it helps prevent further clot formation and reduces the risk of complications like pulmonary embolism. Choice B, applying compression stockings, is more focused on preventing DVT in high-risk patients rather than managing an established case. Encouraging ambulation, choice C, is beneficial in the prevention of DVT but is not the primary management for suspected cases. Monitoring oxygen saturation, choice D, is important in overall patient care but is not the primary intervention for suspected DVT.

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