Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has hypertension about monitoring blood pressure at home. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Use a cuff that is too loose for the arm.
• B. Place the cuff over clothing.
• C. Sit quietly for 5 minutes before measuring your blood pressure.
• D. Use the same arm for each reading.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to sit quietly for 5 minutes before measuring their blood pressure. This allows the body to relax and stabilize, leading to a more accurate reading. Choice A is incorrect because using a cuff that is too loose can result in inaccurate readings. Choice B is incorrect as the cuff should be placed directly on the bare skin. Choice D is incorrect as using the same arm for each reading is important for consistency in monitoring, but sitting quietly before measuring is crucial for accuracy.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has fibromyalgia and requests pain medication. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

• A. Pregabalin
• B. Lorazepam
• C. Colchicine
• D. Codeine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pregabalin. Pregabalin is a first-line medication for treating pain in clients with fibromyalgia. It works by decreasing the number of pain signals sent out by damaged nerves. Choice B, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not indicated for fibromyalgia pain. Choice C, Colchicine, is used to treat gout by reducing inflammation and not indicated for fibromyalgia. Choice D, Codeine, is an opioid analgesic that is not typically recommended for fibromyalgia due to concerns about tolerance and dependence.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse use to monitor the client's therapeutic response to the medication?

• A. INR
• B. aPTT
• C. Platelet count
• D. Hemoglobin A1C

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: INR. The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the laboratory test used to monitor the therapeutic response of warfarin. It helps ensure that the client's clotting time is within the desired range to prevent complications such as excessive bleeding or clotting. Choice B, aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy but rather for assessing heparin therapy. Choice C, Platelet count, assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specifically used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D, Hemoglobin A1C, is a test used to monitor long-term blood sugar control in diabetic patients and is not relevant to monitoring warfarin therapy.

4. A client with heart failure is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will increase my intake of canned vegetables.
• B. I will limit my daily sodium intake to 2 grams.
• C. I will increase my intake of whole grains.
• D. I will reduce my intake of processed meats.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: I will reduce my intake of processed meats.' This choice indicates an understanding of the teaching because processed meats are high in sodium, which can worsen heart failure due to fluid retention. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the issue of reducing sodium intake, which is crucial for clients with heart failure. Increasing canned vegetable intake (A) may not always be advisable due to potential high sodium content in canned products. Limiting sodium intake to 2 grams daily (B) is a good practice, but it's more specific to sodium restriction rather than addressing the source of sodium like processed meats. Increasing whole grains (C) is generally beneficial but does not directly relate to reducing sodium intake in heart failure clients.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has COPD and is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 95%.
• B. Productive cough with clear sputum.
• C. Respiratory rate of 22/min.
• D. Client reports dyspnea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Dyspnea in a client with COPD receiving oxygen should be reported as it may indicate worsening respiratory status. Oxygen saturation of 95% is within the expected range for a client receiving oxygen therapy and does not require immediate reporting. A productive cough with clear sputum is a common symptom in clients with COPD and does not necessarily warrant urgent reporting. A respiratory rate of 22/min is also within normal limits and does not raise immediate concerns in this scenario.

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