Nursing Elites

1. When teaching a client with cancer who has a prescription for methotrexate, which supplement should the nurse instruct the client to take?

• A. Folic acid
• B. Magnesium
• C. Vitamin D
• D. Iron

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is folic acid. Methotrexate is a folic acid antagonist, so instructing the client to take folic acid helps reduce the risk of methotrexate toxicity by providing additional folic acid that the medication may deplete. Magnesium (choice B), Vitamin D (choice C), and Iron (choice D) are not the correct supplements to instruct the client to take with methotrexate.

2. A client has a new prescription for Maraviroc to treat HIV infection. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions?

• A. Liver failure
• B. Kidney failure
• C. Pancreatitis
• D. Severe allergic reactions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Severe allergic reactions. Maraviroc, used to treat HIV infection, can lead to severe allergic reactions, including hepatotoxicity. While liver failure is a potential adverse effect, it is often preceded by hepatotoxicity manifestations like jaundice or right upper quadrant pain. Kidney failure and pancreatitis are not typically associated with Maraviroc use. Therefore, monitoring for signs of severe allergic reactions and hepatotoxicity is crucial for early detection and intervention.

3. Which drug undergoes extensive first-pass hepatic metabolism?

• A. Heparin
• B. Insulin
• C. Propranolol
• D. Nitroglycerin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Propranolol undergoes extensive first-pass hepatic metabolism in the liver. When administered orally, propranolol is extensively metabolized by the liver before reaching systemic circulation, leading to reduced bioavailability. This process is known as first-pass hepatic metabolism, which significantly affects the drug's effectiveness and necessitates higher oral doses compared to other routes of administration. Heparin (Choice A) is not metabolized by the liver but excreted unchanged by the kidneys. Insulin (Choice B) is a peptide hormone that is not subject to significant first-pass metabolism. Nitroglycerin (Choice D) is primarily metabolized in the blood and tissues, bypassing significant first-pass metabolism in the liver.

4. When starting therapy with bicalutamide, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Muscle pain
• B. Flushing
• C. Gynecomastia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gynecomastia. Bicalutamide, due to its antiandrogenic properties, can lead to gynecomastia in clients. This condition involves the development of breast tissue in males and is an important adverse effect to monitor when taking this medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Muscle pain and flushing are not commonly associated with bicalutamide use. Hyperglycemia is not a typical adverse effect of bicalutamide therapy.

5. A client is withdrawing from alcohol and has a new prescription for Propranolol. Which of the following information should be included in the teaching?

• A. Increases the risk for seizure activity.
• B. Provides a form of aversion therapy.
• C. Decreases cravings.
• D. Results in mild hypertension.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreases cravings.' Propranolol is commonly used as an adjunct medication during alcohol withdrawal to help reduce cravings for alcohol. It does not increase the risk for seizure activity, provide aversion therapy, or result in mild hypertension. By decreasing cravings, Propranolol can support the client in managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms and promoting abstinence. Therefore, it is important to educate the client on how Propranolol can help them cope with alcohol cravings effectively.

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