Nursing Elites

1. When reviewing a client's health record, a healthcare professional notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should be identified as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?

• A. Captopril
• B. Lisinopril
• C. Furosemide
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to hypokalemia by increasing the excretion of potassium in the urine. This potassium loss can result in lower-than-normal levels of potassium in the body, leading to hypokalemia.

2. The client asks the nurse about common side effects of calcium channel blockers. What should the nurse include in client teaching?

• A. Headache
• B. Constipation
• C. Epistaxis
• D. Dysuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: One of the common side effects of calcium channel blockers is a headache. This is important information for the nurse to include in client teaching as it helps the client understand potential adverse effects of the medication. Constipation, epistaxis, and dysuria are not typically associated with calcium channel blockers.

3. A client has a new prescription for Methotrexate. Which of the following instructions should be included in the teaching?

• A. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• B. Take the medication with a high-fat meal.
• C. Expect increased hair growth.
• D. You should never stop taking the medication without consulting your healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking Methotrexate is to avoid drinking alcohol. Methotrexate can cause liver toxicity, and alcohol consumption can increase this risk. It is important to emphasize the avoidance of alcohol while on this medication to prevent adverse effects and ensure treatment effectiveness. The other options are incorrect: Taking Methotrexate with a high-fat meal is not necessary as it can be taken with or without food. Increased hair growth is not an expected effect of Methotrexate; in fact, hair loss is a potential side effect. Stopping the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can be dangerous and may lead to worsening of symptoms or relapse, making option D incorrect.

4. While caring for a client receiving Heparin therapy, which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. PT
• B. INR
• C. aPTT
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) when caring for a client receiving Heparin therapy. The aPTT reflects the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin, which primarily affects this pathway by potentiating antithrombin III. Monitoring the aPTT helps ensure that the client's blood is within the therapeutic range to prevent thrombus formation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) are used to monitor Warfarin therapy, not Heparin. Platelet count is important in assessing for thrombocytopenia but is not a specific indicator of Heparin therapy effectiveness.

5. A patient with hypertension is taking an ACE inhibitor to lower blood pressure. What should the nurse advise the patient to avoid in their diet?

• A. Vinegar
• B. Apples
• C. Salt substitutes
• D. Tomatoes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients taking ACE inhibitors should avoid salt substitutes as they often contain potassium, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia is an elevated level of potassium in the blood that can be dangerous, especially for patients on ACE inhibitors. Vinegar, apples, and tomatoes do not pose a risk for patients taking ACE inhibitors. Therefore, the nurse should advise the patient to avoid salt substitutes to prevent potential complications.

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