Nursing Elites

1. A client who has been taking prednisone to treat asthma is advised to discontinue the medication. The client should be instructed to reduce the dose gradually to prevent which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Adrenocortical insufficiency
• C. Severe dehydration
• D. Rebound pulmonary congestion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Abruptly stopping prednisone can result in adrenocortical insufficiency due to suppression of the adrenal glands. Gradually tapering the dose helps the body adjust and resume its natural cortisol production, preventing adrenal insufficiency. Choice A, hyperglycemia, is a possible adverse effect of prednisone, but it is not the primary reason for gradual tapering. Severe dehydration (Choice C) and rebound pulmonary congestion (Choice D) are not typically associated with discontinuing prednisone.

2. A client with cancer and a prescription for methotrexate PO reports bleeding gums while being assessed by a nurse in a provider's clinic. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Explain to the client that this is an expected adverse effect.
• B. Check the value of the client's current platelet count.
• C. Instruct the client to use an electric toothbrush.
• D. Have the client make an appointment to see the dentist.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client on methotrexate reports bleeding gums is to check the client's current platelet count. Bleeding gums may indicate thrombocytopenia, a decreased platelet count which can be a severe side effect of methotrexate therapy. Monitoring the platelet count is crucial for early detection and management of this potentially life-threatening complication. Choice A is incorrect as bleeding gums in this context may not be an expected adverse effect of methotrexate. Choice C is irrelevant and does not address the potential underlying issue of thrombocytopenia. Choice D is not the primary action needed at this point; checking the platelet count is more urgent to assess the severity of the situation.

3. A client has a new prescription for Metoprolol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia.
• C. Avoid sudden discontinuation of the medication.
• D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid sudden discontinuation of Metoprolol. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that should be tapered off gradually to prevent rebound hypertension and other cardiac issues. Abruptly stopping Metoprolol can lead to serious complications, so it is essential for the client to follow the healthcare provider's guidance on discontinuation. Choice A is incorrect because Metoprolol can be taken with or without food. Choice B is incorrect as Metoprolol is not typically associated with causing hyperglycemia. Choice D is also incorrect as there is no need to increase potassium-rich foods specifically due to taking Metoprolol.

4. A healthcare provider is completing a client's medical history. The client takes Simvastatin. The healthcare provider should identify which of the following disorders as a contraindication to adding Ezetimibe to the client's medications?

• A. History of severe constipation
• B. History of hypertension
• C. Active hepatitis C
• D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ezetimibe is contraindicated in patients with active moderate-to-severe liver disorders, such as active hepatitis C, especially when they are already taking a statin like simvastatin. This combination can increase the risk of liver problems and is not recommended due to the potential for further liver damage. Choices A, B, and D are not directly contraindications for adding Ezetimibe to the client's medications.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Butorphanol to a client who has a history of substance use disorder. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following information as true regarding Butorphanol?

• A. Butorphanol has a greater risk of abuse than morphine.
• B. Butorphanol causes a higher incidence of respiratory depression than morphine.
• C. Butorphanol cannot be reversed with an opioid antagonist.
• D. Butorphanol can cause abstinence syndrome in opioid-dependent clients.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Butorphanol, an opioid agonist/antagonist, can lead to abstinence syndrome in clients who are opioid-dependent. This syndrome may present with symptoms like abdominal pain, fever, and anxiety. It is crucial for healthcare professionals to consider this risk when administering Butorphanol to clients with a history of substance use disorder. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Butorphanol is less likely to be abused than morphine, causes less respiratory depression than morphine, and can be reversed with an opioid antagonist.

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