Nursing Elites

1. A caregiver is being instructed by the healthcare provider of an adolescent client who has a new prescription for Albuterol, PO. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?

• A. You can take this medication to relieve an acute asthma attack.'
• B. Tremors are a potential adverse effect of this medication.'
• C. Long-term use of this medication can lead to hyperglycemia.'
• D. This medication can potentially slow the rate of skeletal growth.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tremors are a possible adverse effect of Albuterol due to its stimulation of beta2 receptors in skeletal muscles. It is important for the healthcare provider to educate the caregiver about potential side effects to enhance safety and monitoring of the adolescent client.

2. A client has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication in the morning.
• B. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. Expect decreased urination within the first few days.
• D. Avoid foods high in potassium.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.' Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia by increasing potassium excretion. Therefore, instructing the client to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods is essential to prevent electrolyte imbalances and support overall health. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Instructing the client to take the medication in the morning is not directly related to the medication's mechanism of action. Expecting decreased urination within the first few days is not accurate as the medication is a diuretic that typically increases urination. Also, advising the client to avoid foods high in potassium would not be suitable, as increasing potassium-rich foods is necessary to counteract potential potassium depletion caused by Hydrochlorothiazide.

3. A client has a new prescription for Levodopa/Carbidopa for Parkinson's disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Increase intake of protein-rich foods.
• B. Expect muscle twitching to occur.
• C. Take this medication with food.
• D. Anticipate relief of manifestations in 24 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to take Levodopa/Carbidopa with food. Taking this medication with food helps reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Instructing the client to take the medication with food promotes better tolerance and absorption of the drug. Choice A is incorrect because increasing protein-rich foods is not specifically related to the administration of this medication. Choice B is incorrect as muscle twitching is not a common side effect of Levodopa/Carbidopa. Choice D is incorrect because relief of manifestations may take longer than 24 hours to occur.

4. A client with peptic ulcer disease is being taught about managing the condition. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should eat small, frequent meals that are low in fiber.
• B. I will limit my intake of caffeine-containing beverages.
• C. I should take NSAIDs to relieve my pain.
• D. I will drink milk before bedtime to decrease acid production.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'I will limit my intake of caffeine-containing beverages.' Limiting intake of caffeine-containing beverages is important for managing peptic ulcer disease as caffeine can stimulate gastric acid secretion, which may worsen the condition. It is advisable to choose decaffeinated beverages and avoid caffeinated drinks to help reduce the risk of aggravating the ulcer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A suggests eating small, frequent meals low in fiber, which is not ideal for managing peptic ulcer disease. Choice C of taking NSAIDs is contraindicated as NSAIDs can worsen peptic ulcers. Choice D of drinking milk before bedtime to decrease acid production is a common misconception; while milk may temporarily neutralize stomach acid, it can stimulate more acid production later, making the condition worse.

5. A client with deep vein thrombosis has been on heparin continuous infusion for 5 days. The provider prescribes warfarin PO without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Warfarin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.
• B. I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today.
• C. Both heparin and warfarin work together to dissolve the clots.
• D. The IV heparin increases the effects of the warfarin and decreases the length of your hospital stay.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because warfarin takes several days to reach a therapeutic level and exert its full anticoagulant effect. During this time, the IV heparin is continued to prevent clotting until the warfarin is effective. Both medications are used together temporarily for this reason. Discontinuing heparin prematurely can increase the risk of clot formation. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the client that the IV heparin will be continued until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.

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