ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. A client is being educated about the use of Fluticasone to treat Perennial Rhinitis. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should use the spray every 4 hours while I am awake.
- B. It can take as long as 3 weeks before the medication takes maximum effect.
- C. This medication can also be used to treat motion sickness.
- D. I can use this medication when my nasal passages are blocked.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because Fluticasone may show some benefits within a few hours, but its full therapeutic effect may take up to 3 weeks to be achieved in treating Perennial Rhinitis. Option A is incorrect as the frequency of Fluticasone use is usually once daily. Option C is incorrect as Fluticasone is not used for motion sickness. Option D is incorrect as Fluticasone is a preventive medication and not used for immediate relief when nasal passages are blocked.
2. What is a severe adverse effect of warfarin?
- A. Bleeding
- B. Arrhythmias
- C. Blurred vision
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A severe adverse effect of warfarin is bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting blood clotting factors, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Excessive bleeding can occur internally or externally, and it is crucial for individuals taking warfarin to be aware of this potential complication and seek medical attention if they experience any signs of bleeding. Arrhythmias, blurred vision, and bradycardia are not typically associated with warfarin use, making them incorrect choices.
3. An older adult client has a new prescription for Digoxin and takes multiple other medications. The nurse should recognize that concurrent use of which of the following medications places the client at risk for Digoxin toxicity?
- A. Phenytoin
- B. Verapamil
- C. Warfarin
- D. Aluminum hydroxide
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium-channel blocker, can increase digoxin levels, leading to toxicity. When given together, the digoxin dosage may need adjustment, and the nurse should closely monitor the client's digoxin levels to prevent toxicity symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, visual disturbances, and arrhythmias. The other choices, Phenytoin, Warfarin, and Aluminum hydroxide, do not significantly interact with Digoxin to cause toxicity. Phenytoin may reduce Digoxin levels, while Warfarin and Aluminum hydroxide have minimal interactions with Digoxin.
4. A client with cirrhosis is about to receive a dose of lactulose. The client questions the need for the medication, stating they are not constipated. The nurse should explain that lactulose is used in cirrhosis to reduce levels of which component in the bloodstream?
- A. Glucose
- B. Ammonia
- C. Potassium
- D. Bicarbonate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Lactulose is administered to clients with cirrhosis to lower blood ammonia levels, thus aiding in the prevention of hepatic encephalopathy. Elevated ammonia levels in cirrhosis can lead to cognitive impairment and hepatic encephalopathy. Therefore, the correct answer is B (Ammonia). Glucose (Choice A) is not the component targeted by lactulose in cirrhosis. Potassium (Choice C) and Bicarbonate (Choice D) are not directly affected by lactulose administration in cirrhosis.
5. A client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Ototoxicity
- D. Hemorrhagic cystitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for hemorrhagic cystitis when receiving cyclophosphamide due to its potential to cause bladder irritation and lead to this serious adverse effect. It is essential to assess for symptoms such as hematuria, dysuria, and flank pain. Monitoring for hypertension, hyperglycemia, and ototoxicity is not directly related to the side effects of cyclophosphamide.
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