Nursing Elites

1. When educating a client who has a prescription for Propranolol, what instruction should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Discontinue the medication if you feel fatigued.
• C. Expect to have decreased heart rate with this medication.
• D. Do not stop taking this medication abruptly.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a prescription for Propranolol is not to stop taking the medication abruptly. Abrupt cessation can result in rebound hypertension or other cardiac complications. It is crucial for the client to taper off the medication gradually under healthcare provider supervision to prevent adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect because Propranolol can be taken with or without food. Choice B is incorrect as discontinuing the medication based on fatigue alone is not advisable without consulting a healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect because while Propranolol can decrease heart rate, it is not the primary instruction to provide in this scenario.

2. When preparing to administer IV Acyclovir for Herpes Zoster, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Infuse the medication over 1 hour.
• B. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 15 minutes during infusion.
• C. Administer a stool softener.
• D. Monitor the client's blood glucose level every 4 hours during infusion.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse is to infuse IV Acyclovir over at least 1 hour to prevent nephrotoxicity. Rapid infusion can lead to adverse effects, so a slow infusion rate is crucial for patient safety. Monitoring blood pressure, administering a stool softener, or monitoring blood glucose levels are not directly related to the administration of IV Acyclovir for Herpes Zoster.

3. A client has a new prescription for Aspirin for the prevention of myocardial infarction. Which of the following findings should be identified as an adverse effect?

• A. Nausea
• B. Bruising
• C. Dizziness
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Bruising is an adverse effect to be monitored when a client is prescribed Aspirin for the prevention of myocardial infarction due to its association with increased bleeding risk. Aspirin's antiplatelet effect can lead to bruising and other signs of bleeding, necessitating close observation to prevent complications. Nausea, dizziness, and dry mouth are not typically recognized adverse effects of Aspirin therapy for myocardial infarction prevention.

4. A client is receiving treatment with capecitabine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Capecitabine is known to cause neutropenia as a common adverse effect due to bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infections and requires close monitoring to prevent complications. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with capecitabine. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) and Bradycardia (Choice D) are not commonly linked to capecitabine use, making them incorrect choices.

5. Reteplase (Retavase) has been ordered for a client diagnosed with an MI. The nurse understands that this drug needs to be administered within which time frame following the onset of symptoms?

• A. 45 minutes to 18 hours
• B. 30 minutes to 12 hours
• C. 90 minutes to 36 hours
• D. 60 minutes to 24 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reteplase (Retavase) is a thrombolytic medication used in the treatment of myocardial infarction (MI). It is crucial to administer this drug within 30 minutes to 12 hours following the onset of symptoms to achieve optimal therapeutic effects and improve patient outcomes. Administering Reteplase within this time frame helps in restoring blood flow to the affected areas of the heart by dissolving blood clots, reducing myocardial damage, and potentially preventing further complications associated with MI.

Similar Questions