ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology
1. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?
- A. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours
- B. Blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg
- C. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
- D. Urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours indicates decreased kidney function, potentially due to Furosemide therapy. This finding can suggest inadequate renal perfusion and impaired drug clearance, necessitating immediate reporting to prevent further complications like electrolyte imbalances and worsening heart failure. Choice A: Weight loss may be expected in heart failure patients due to fluid retention, but it is not an immediate concern. Choice B: A blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg is slightly low but not a priority compared to the indication of kidney dysfunction. Choice C: A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is within the normal range, so it does not require immediate reporting.
2. A client has been prescribed an anticoagulant for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food to prevent nausea.
- B. Avoid activities that may cause injury.
- C. Monitor your heart rate daily before taking the medication.
- D. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed an anticoagulant for atrial fibrillation is to avoid activities that may cause injury. Anticoagulants increase the risk of bleeding, so it is important to prevent situations that could lead to injury or trauma. Choice A is incorrect because anticoagulants are not typically affected by food intake. Choice C is not necessary for all anticoagulant medications, and heart rate monitoring is more relevant for other conditions. Choice D is not directly related to the action of anticoagulants and is not a priority instruction for this medication.
3. Which of the following is the antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity?
- A. Flumazenil
- B. Methylene blue
- C. Deferoxamine
- D. Alkalinize urine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flumazenil is the specific antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity. It acts as a competitive antagonist at the benzodiazepine binding site on the GABA receptor, reversing the sedative effects of benzodiazepines. Administration of flumazenil is indicated in cases of benzodiazepine overdose or toxicity to rapidly reverse the central nervous system depression caused by these drugs. It is important to note that flumazenil should be used cautiously in patients with a history of seizures or those who are physically dependent on benzodiazepines, as it can precipitate withdrawal symptoms or seizures.
4. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Ephedrine?
- A. COPD
- B. Hypotension
- C. Congestion
- D. Incontinence
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Ephedrine is not typically used to treat COPD. While it can help relieve symptoms like congestion and hypotension, it is not a first-line treatment for COPD. Incontinence is not a condition commonly treated with Ephedrine either.
5. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Ipratropium, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. This medication can be used as a rescue inhaler.
- B. This medication should be taken before albuterol.
- C. Wait 5 minutes between medications if two inhaled medications are prescribed.
- D. Ipratropium can be used before exercise.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When two inhaled medications are prescribed, waiting 5 minutes between medications allows for optimal absorption and effectiveness of each medication. This ensures that each medication can work properly without interference from the other, improving the client's respiratory condition.
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