Nursing Elites

1. A client with breast cancer is being taught by a nurse about the adverse effects of chemotherapy. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. You should use a soft-bristled toothbrush to prevent bleeding.
• B. You should avoid contact with individuals who recently received live virus vaccines.
• C. You should take aspirin for minor aches and pains.
• D. You should consume a diet low in protein to reduce the risk of renal damage.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to use a soft-bristled toothbrush to prevent bleeding, which can occur due to chemotherapy-induced thrombocytopenia. Chemotherapy can decrease platelet counts, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Using a soft-bristled toothbrush can help prevent gum bleeding and oral trauma. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding contact with individuals who recently received live virus vaccines is crucial to prevent infections in immunocompromised clients. Aspirin should be avoided due to its blood-thinning effects that can increase the risk of bleeding. A diet low in protein is not recommended as cancer clients often require adequate protein intake for healing and recovery.

2. A client is prescribed Digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as a sign of potential toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of Digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a medication used to treat heart conditions, can lead to toxicity manifesting as bradycardia. Monitoring the client's heart rate closely is crucial to detect potential toxicity early and prevent complications. Hypertension, hyperglycemia, and hypocalcemia are not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect.

3. Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

• A. Mexiletine
• B. Amiodarone
• C. Quinidine
• D. Procainamide

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Procainamide is a class IA antiarrhythmic drug that acts as a sodium channel blocker by blocking fast sodium channels. Mexiletine is a class IB antiarrhythmic drug, not class IA. Amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic, and Quinidine is a class IA antiarrhythmic but not a sodium channel blocker.

4. A client has a prescription for Heparin. Which of the following laboratory tests should be monitored while the client is receiving Heparin?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Complete blood count (CBC)
• C. International normalized ratio (INR)
• D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the correct laboratory test to monitor while a client is receiving Heparin. This test is used to assess the therapeutic levels of heparin in the blood, ensuring that the dose is within the safe and effective range. Monitoring aPTT helps healthcare providers adjust the dosage of Heparin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting.

5. When educating a client with a new prescription for Enalapril, which manifestation should the nurse instruct the client to report as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Tremors
• B. Dry cough
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Hyperactivity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A persistent dry cough is a well-known adverse effect of ACE inhibitors, such as enalapril. This cough can be bothersome and may indicate the need for a medication adjustment. It is crucial for the client to report this symptom to their healthcare provider to explore potential alternatives or adjustments to the treatment plan. Tremors, drowsiness, and hyperactivity are not commonly associated with enalapril and are less likely to be attributed to this medication.

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