Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Butorphanol to a client who has a history of substance use disorder. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following information as true regarding Butorphanol?

• A. Butorphanol has a lower risk of abuse than morphine.
• B. Butorphanol causes a lower incidence of respiratory depression than morphine.
• C. Butorphanol can be reversed with an opioid antagonist.
• D. Butorphanol can cause abstinence syndrome in opioid-dependent clients.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Butorphanol is an opioid agonist/antagonist that can precipitate withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent individuals. Symptoms of abstinence syndrome can include abdominal pain, fever, and anxiety. This occurs because butorphanol competes with and displaces opioid agonists from receptors, leading to withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent clients. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Butorphanol does not have a lower risk of abuse than morphine, it can cause respiratory depression similar to other opioids, and although it is an opioid antagonist, it does not get reversed by opioid antagonists.

2. A client has a new prescription for Nifedipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Edema
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Edema. Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should closely observe the client's lower extremities for any signs of swelling, which could indicate the development of edema. Choice A, Hypertension, is incorrect because Nifedipine is used to treat hypertension, not cause it. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is unrelated to Nifedipine's common adverse effects. Choice D, Bradycardia, is not typically associated with Nifedipine use.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory findings and notes that a client's plasma Lithium level is 2.1 mEq/L. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the healthcare professional?

• A. Perform immediate gastric lavage.
• B. Prepare the client for hemodialysis.
• C. Administer an additional oral dose of lithium.
• D. Request a stat repeat of the laboratory test.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Performing immediate gastric lavage is the appropriate action for a client with severe lithium toxicity, indicated by a plasma lithium level of 2.1 mEq/L. Gastric lavage can help reduce the client's lithium level by removing the unabsorbed drug from the stomach.

4. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia.
• C. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Verapamil is to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of Verapamil, leading to increased blood levels of the medication. This can result in a higher risk of adverse effects, such as hypotension and bradycardia. Therefore, it is essential for the client to avoid grapefruit juice while taking Verapamil to prevent potential complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking Verapamil at bedtime, monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia, and increasing potassium-rich foods intake are not specific instructions related to Verapamil therapy and do not address the potential interaction with grapefruit juice.

5. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Cinchonism?

• A. Valproic acid
• B. Quinidine
• C. Isoniazid
• D. Ethosuximide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cinchonism is associated with Quinidine, not Valproic acid, Isoniazid, or Ethosuximide. Cinchonism is characterized by symptoms such as tinnitus, dizziness, and headaches. Quinidine, being an antiarrhythmic agent, can lead to this condition as a side effect.

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