ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client has a new prescription for Loperamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- B. Avoid activities that require alertness.
- C. Increase your intake of high-fiber foods.
- D. Expect your stools to be black and tarry.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Loperamide can cause drowsiness and dizziness, so clients should avoid activities that require alertness until they know how the medication affects them. Taking the medication with a full glass of water can help with absorption. Increasing intake of high-fiber foods is not directly related to Loperamide. Black, tarry stools are not expected side effects of this medication, so informing the client to expect this is incorrect.
2. A client with a prescription for Vasopressin to treat Diabetes Insipidus is being taught by a healthcare professional. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will reduce my sodium intake.
- B. I should increase my water intake.
- C. I will notify my doctor if I develop chest pain.
- D. I should take this medication with food.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because Vasopressin can cause vasoconstriction, potentially leading to chest pain. It is crucial for the client to inform their healthcare provider immediately if they experience chest pain while on Vasopressin therapy to address any potential cardiovascular complications promptly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While maintaining adequate hydration is essential with Vasopressin therapy due to its antidiuretic effect, increasing water intake is not the most critical aspect to monitor. Reducing sodium intake may be beneficial in some cases but is not directly related to the potential side effects of Vasopressin. Taking the medication with food is not a specific instruction for Vasopressin administration.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin via continuous IV infusion. Which of the following results indicates that the heparin infusion should be increased?
- A. aPTT of 90 seconds
- B. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³
- C. INR of 1.0
- D. Hgb of 15 g/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is above the therapeutic range for heparin, which typically falls between 60-80 seconds. This indicates that the current heparin dose is too high, and the infusion rate should be decreased to avoid excessive anticoagulation and the risk of bleeding. Monitoring aPTT is crucial in adjusting heparin therapy to maintain it within the therapeutic range.
4. When assessing a client with chronic Neutropenia receiving Filgrastim, what action should the nurse take to evaluate for an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Assess for bone pain.
- B. Assess for right lower quadrant pain.
- C. Auscultate for crackles in the bases of the lungs.
- D. Auscultate the chest to listen for a heart murmur.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action when assessing a client receiving Filgrastim for chronic Neutropenia is to assess for bone pain. Bone pain is a known dose-related adverse effect of Filgrastim. Acetaminophen or opioid analgesics can be used to manage bone pain if necessary. Assessing for other types of pain, lung crackles, or heart murmurs would not be specific to the adverse effects of Filgrastim.
5. When educating a client starting Simvastatin, which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Take this medication in the evening.
- B. Change positions slowly when rising from a chair.
- C. Maintain a consistent intake of green leafy vegetables.
- D. Limit fluid intake to 1 L per day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to take Simvastatin in the evening. This timing is important because the body synthesizes the most cholesterol at night. By taking the medication in the evening, its effectiveness is increased, leading to better outcomes for the client.
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